APPSC Group-1 PYQs – 2023
APPSC G1 2023 PYQ’S
Question paper
Part A: History and Culture
1. Consider the following statements on the late Harappan cultures:
I. The late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic in which tools of stone and copper are used.
II. They do not show metal objects requiring complicated casting.
III. The Chalcolithic people in the later Harappan phase lived in villages.
IV. In the late Harappan phase at Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks were not found.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and IV
(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
2. Consider the following types of pottery:
I. Black and Red Ware
II. Black Slipped Ware
III. Painted Grey Ware
IV. Red Ware
V. Northern Black Polished Ware
Which of the above types of pottery were associated with the Later Vedic people?
II, III and IV only
II, III and V only
I, II, III and IV
I, II, III, IV and V
3. Identify the incorrect statement on the contributions of Jainism:
(1) The early Jainas adopted Prakrit to preach their doctrines.
(2) Their religious literature was written in Ardhamagadhi.
(3) The early Jainas discarded Sanskrit language.
(4) They never used Apabhramsa for the earliest important works of Jainism.
4. Match the following (Mahajanapada and Capital):
Avanti I. Ujjain
Koshala II. Shravasti
Vatsa III. Kaushambi
Anga IV. Champa
Choose the correct answer:
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
5. Consider the following art and architectural forms:
Rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa
Yakshi figure from Didarganj near Patna
Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh
80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna
Which of the above belong to the Mauryan period?
II, III and IV
II and III only
I, II, III and IV
I, II and III
6. Consider the following items:
Turban
Trousers
Heavy long coat
Helmet
V. Boots
Which of the items listed above were introduced by the Shakas and Kushans from Central Asia?
I, II, III and IV
I, II, III and V
II, III, IV and V
I, II, III, IV and V
7. In Satavahana inscriptions, the terms 'Katakas' and 'Skandhavaras' mean:
Tax-free villages of Buddhist monks
Military camps and settlements serving as administrative centres
Areas of rock-cut architecture
Areas of large-scale paddy transplantations
8. Consider the following statements:
During the reign of Chandragupta-I, the Sakas were defeated.
Samudragupta's South Indian conquest did not lead to any permanent annexation.
Which is correct?
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both
(4) None
9. In Sangam literature, Vellalars were:
(1) Brahmanas who functioned as poets
(2) Rich peasants of the fourth caste
(3) Agricultural labourers who also worked with animal skins
(4) Forest tribes who suffered from extreme poverty
10. Match the Pallava Ruler with the Political Event:
| List I (Pallavan Ruler) | List II (Political Event) |
| A. Sivaskandavarman | II. Kanchi came under the Pallavas |
| B. Vishnugopa | I. Samudragupta’s invasion |
| C. Narasimhavarman I | IV. Defeat of Pulakesin-II and destruction of Vatapi city |
| D. Nandivarman II | III. Defeated by Vikramaditya-II and Kanchi was captured |
Choose the correct answer using the code given below :
A B C D
I II III IV
II I IV III
IV III II I
III IV I II
11. Which of the following is wrongly matched with respect to Rashtrakutas?
| Option | Person | Description |
| (1) | Amoghavarsha I | First Kannada book writer |
| (2) | Dantidurga | Founder |
| (3) | Vallabharaja | Contemporary of Al-Masudi |
| (4) | Krishna III | Famous rock-cut temple of Shiva at Ellora Caves |
12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas:
The Chola Empire was founded by Parantaka-I
Parantaka-I took title "Maduraikondavan"
Rajaraja-I conquered Maldives Islands
Rajendra-I built Gangaikonda cholapuram
13. Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built by:
Iltutmish
Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Ala-ud-din Khalji
Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
14. The Persian traveller Abdur Razzaq visited Vijayanaga in the reign of
Harihara-I
Devaraya-I
Devaraya-II
Krishnadevaraya
15. Match the following:
| List I (Bhakti Saint) | List II (Area of Movement) |
| A. Vallabhacharya | II. Gujarat |
| B. Tulsidas | I. Uttar Pradesh |
| C. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu | III. Bengal |
| D. Tukaram | IV. Maharashtra |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
I II III IV
II I IV III
II I III IV
III IV I II
16. Consider the following statements on Sher Shah’s land revenue administration:
I. Land was classified into three categories on the basis of produce from the land
II. Land was measured according to a uniform system.
III. ¼ of the produce was collected as tax.
Which of the above statements are correct.
I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and III
17. Consider the following Mughal structures
Tomb of Salim Chishti
Buland Darwara
Tomb of Humayun
Jami Masjid
Which of the above buildings were constructed during the reign of Akbar?
(1) II and III only
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, II and III
(4) I, II, III and IV
18. Match the following:
| List-I (Name of ruler) | List-II (Position of ruler) |
| A. Husain Ali Khan | I. One of the sayid brothers |
| B. Murshid Quli Khan | II. The ruler of Bengal |
| C. Chin Qilich Khan | III. The Nijam of HYderabad |
| D. Safdar Jung | IV.The Nawab of Awadh. |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A-I , B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
19. Match the following:
| List-I (Kakatiya ruler) | List-II (Event/Contribution) |
| A. Rudradeva | I. Shifting the capital from Anamakonda to Orugallu (Warangal). |
| B. Ganapatideva | II. Thousand Pillar Temple was built. |
| C. Rudramadevi | III. Malik Kafur's expedition. |
| D. Prataparudradeva | IV. Marco Polo's visit to Coastal Andhra |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
20. Identify the correct chronology of Later Mughals
1) Bahadur Shah > Farruq Siyar > Jahandar Shah > Muhammad Shah > Shah Alam II
2) Bahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah> Muhammad Shah> Farruq Siyar> Shah Alam II
3) Bahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah> Farruq Siyar > Muhammad Shah> Shah Alam II
4) Farruq Siyar > Jahandar Shah> Muhammad Shah>> Shah Alam II> Bahadur Shah
21. In Shivaji’s administration, Dabir was:
(1) An officer responsible for intelligence, posts and household affairs
(2) The in-charge of justice and charitable grants
(3) The Correspondent to the king
(4) The Master of Ceremonies and helped the king in foreign affairs
(2) The in-charge of justice and charitable grants
(3) The Correspondent to the king
(4) The Master of Ceremonies and helped the king in foreign affairs
22. Identify the correct chronology of establishment of French settlements:
(1) Surat > Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > Karaikal
(2) Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat
(3) Surat > Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Yanam
(4) Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat > Yanam
(2) Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat
(3) Surat > Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Yanam
(4) Pondicherry > Mahe > Karaikal > Surat > Yanam
23. Consider the following Indian states:
I. Awadh
II. Jhansi
III. Satara
IV. Nagpur
V. Sindh
II. Jhansi
III. Satara
IV. Nagpur
V. Sindh
Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse?
(1) I, II, III and V
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II, III, IV and V
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II, III, IV and V
24. Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18Th century:
1) Tayumanavar : Tamil
2) Warris Shah : Punjabi
3) Kunchan Nambiar : Malayalam
3) Kunchan Nambiar : Malayalam
4) Dayaram : MarathiHere is the transcribed text from the image:
25. Consider the following statements on the contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
I. His great contribution was for the upliftment of women in India.
II. He organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act.
III. To propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper.
II. He organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act.
III. To propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and III
26. Which of the following statements is incorrect on William Bentinck’s reforms?
Introduction of a new land revenue system in the North-Western Province
Abolition of ‘Sati’
Eradication of female infanticide
Establishment of universities for the first time
27. Consider the following events:
I. Swadeshi Movement
II. Surat Split
II. Surat Split
III. Lucknow Pact
IV. Home Rule Movement
Which of the above main events took place during the extremist phase?
(1) I, II and III
(2) I and II only
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
(2) I and II only
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
28. Consider the following events:
I. Visit of Simon Commission to India
II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session
III. Launch of Dandi March
II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session
III. Launch of Dandi March
Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin?
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III
29. Consider the following Revolutionaries:
I. Bhagat Singh
II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
IV. Ram Prasad Bismil
V. Chandra Shekhar Azad
II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
IV. Ram Prasad Bismil
V. Chandra Shekhar Azad
Who among the above founded ‘Hindustan Republican Association’ in 1924?
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and IV
(3) II, III, IV and V
(2) II, III and IV
(3) II, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, III and IV
30. Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding ‘Praja Mandals’?
| (1) | Vijay Singh Pathik | Rajasthan |
| (2) | Balwantrai Mehta | Madhya Pradesh |
| (3) | Sewa Singh Thikriwala | Punjab |
| (4) | Sarangadhar Das | Odisha |
31. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip'?
I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the 'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998'.
II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.
III. All political parties – whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament.
IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I and IV
(2) Only III
(3) II and III
(4) II and IV
32. In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid :
I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation.
II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party.
III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government.
IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) II and III
(2) I, III and IV
(3) Only I
(4) Only IV
33. Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration?
I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy.
II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304.
III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288.
IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I and IV
(2) I, II and IV
(3) Only III
(4) I and III
34. Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) :
I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all.
III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit.
IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
(1) I and III
(2) Only IV
(3) II and III
(4) II and IV
35. In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?
I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution.
II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.
III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) II and III
(2) I and IV
(3) Only IV
(4) Only II
36. Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India:
I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned.
III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body.
IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?
(1) II and III
(2) Only IV
(3) Only II
(4) I, II and IV
37. In the context of Centre – State Relations, which of the following statement/statements are valid?
I. Punchhi Commission had recommended that the procedure that is followed for the removal of President should also be applicable for the impeachment of Governors as well.
II. The law that is made by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to the State in which President's rule is imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State Legislature after the President's rule is ended.
III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the first to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary in the national interest that the Parliament should make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only III
(2) I and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, III and IV
38. Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States:
I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States.
II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States.
IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?
(1) II and IV
(2) Only IV
(3) Only III
(4) I and III
39. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct in relation to the Human Rights Commissions in India ?
I. The role to undertake functions relating to human rights in the Union Territory of Ladakh may be conferred upon a State Human Rights Commission by the Central Government.
II. Only 2 persons can be appointed as members of the National Human Rights Commission under the category of possessing knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
III. The President can remove the Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the President has to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in this matter.
IV. The National Human Rights Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of two years from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) None
(2) III and IV
(3) Only IV
(4) I, II and III
40. Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation?
I. The principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation.
II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs.
III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I, II and IV
(2) II and III
(3) Only IV
(4) I, III and IV
41. Consider the following statements with regard to India’s Foreign Policy:
I. India’s Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions.
II. The ‘Connect Central Asia Policy’ has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the ‘India-Central Asia Summit’ mechanism.
III. Under the ‘Security and Growth for All in the Region’ (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region.
IV. India’s Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence.
Which of the above statements are valid ?
(1) I and II
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II and III
(4) III and IV
42. Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India?
I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan.
II. India’s support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen.
III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security.
IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only IV
(2) II and III
(3) None
(4) All
43. In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?
I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities.
II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government.
III. Under the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency.
IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.
Select the answer using the codes given below :
(1) I and IV
(2) I, II and III
(3) All
(4) Only II
44. In the context of the enactment of Budget, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The Appropriation Bill carries an automatic repeal clause.
II. The provision 'Vote on Account' has become ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget cycle from the last day of February to the first day of February.
III. Amendments to either reject or reduce a tax can not be moved in case of the Finance Bill.
IV. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I and IV
(2) I and III
(3) Only II
(4) Only IV
45. In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.
II. The Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to the Government Bills at all times.
III. The Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'.
IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only III
(2) I, II and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) Only II
46. With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :
I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights.
II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone.
III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007).
IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) II and IV
(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I and II
47. The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons?
I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well.
II. The expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India.
III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'.
IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only I
(2) Only IV
(3) I and IV
(4) I, II and III
48. With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to ‘Equality’?
I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey.
II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of ‘Equality before the law’ but does not mention the concept of ‘Equal Protection of Laws’.
III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute.
IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) III and IV (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) I and IV
49. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties?
I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India.
II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions.
III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret.
IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) III and IV
(2) I and II
(3) Only IV
(4) II and IV
50. With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?
I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38.
II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45.
III. The adding of Article 43B.
IV. The adding of Article 48A.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I, III, IV, II
(2) IV, I, II, III
(3) IV, II, I, III
(4) I, IV, II, III
51. Consider the following statements:
I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973).
II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well.
III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Chamapakan Dorairajan case (1951).
Which of the statement/statements given above is/are incorrect?
(1) III and IV
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) Only III
52. With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President.
II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments – simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority.
III. For amendments that require ratification of half the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill.
IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States.
Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) II and IV
(2) I, III and IV
(3) I and III
(4) Only III
53. Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution :
I. The doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament.
II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
III. Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and IV
(3) II and III
(4) II and IV
54. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?
(1) Parliamentary Privileges are the privileges that are enjoyed collectively by each House of the Parliament, and not by the Members individually.
(2) Only Members can be punished for contempt by reprimand and admonition but not outsiders.
(3) The phrase 'Breach of Privilege' has wider implications than the 'Contempt of the House'.
(4) The Members cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament but this privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
55. The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements?
I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.
II. Consideration of the CAG's report.
III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President.
IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I, III and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) All
(4) Only II
56. Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats?
I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.
II. Loans from the State Government.
III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations.
IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I, II and III
(2) II and IV
(3) Only II
(4) None
57. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :
Assertion (A) : In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels.
Reason (R) : The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
58. In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?
I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse. II. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses will not lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should not have been dissolved by the time the Bill is returned. III. A Bill that is passed by both the Houses but pending for President's assent will not lapse. IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will also lapse.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) Only III
(2) I, III and IV
(3) II and IV
(4) None
59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India?
I. It is a non-constitutional quasi-judicial body.
II. One of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration.
III. Its reports are not submitted to the Parliament.
IV. It has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself.
Select the answer using the codes given below :
(1) II and III
(2) Only III
(3) All
(4) I, II and IV
60. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ?
I. The term ‘democratic’ as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism.
II. The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister.
III. The ‘Liberty’ expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified.
IV. The term ‘Fraternity’ as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Only IV
(4) None
Part C : Indian and Andhra Pradesh Economy and Planning
61. In recent times, many leading agencies have reaffirmed high growth for the Indian Economy. Which of the following statement/statements can be the best reason/reasons for India's projected high growth?
I. Strong Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)
II. Government's shift of focus from large capital expenditure towards private investment
III. Increase in domestic air passenger traffic along with a reduction in the volume of Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)
IV. Fading of the El Nino oscillation and better Rabi crop prospects
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I and IV
(2) II and III
(3) I, III and IV
(4) Only IV
62. With regard to the progress of Digital Payments in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. Promotion of Digital Payments has been transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to the Department of Financial Services.
II. e-RUPI is an institution-based voucher management system instead of being person and purpose specific.
III. ‘Hello! UPI’ is an AI voice-enabled payment feature built by a consortium of private sponsored startups recognised by the NPCI.
IV. ‘UPI LITE X’ addresses challenges of remote areas by enabling offline UPI payments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I, III and IV
(2) III and IV
(3) Only III
(4) I and IV
63. Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India?
I. NIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry.
II. The Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors.
III. The Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room.
IV. India's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) All
(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I and IV
64. The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy?
I. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects
II. To set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030
III. Optional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes
IV. Provision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery
V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I, II, III and V
(2) II and IV
(3) I, III and V
(4) IV and V
65. Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector?
(1) Moderation in India's merchandise export growth in FY24 accompanied by a sharp decline in India's merchandise import growth
(2) Increasing commodity prices with escalating global demand
(3) Increase in merchandise exports and imports followed by a decline in net services receipts
(4) Growth in world output outpacing the world trade volume
66. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A): Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains.
Reason (R): They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains A.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP)?
I. NIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects.
II. NIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP’s coverage.
III. NIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India.
IV. India Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead ‘Invest India’ is presently facilitating NIP.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I, II and III
(2) Only III
(3) III and IV
(4) I, II and IV
68. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A): Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state.
Reason (R): The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
69. The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as:
(1) An initiative to unlock the value of investments in private sector assets by utilizing public sector capital.
(2) Involving an indefinite period license/lease of an asset, owned by the government or a public authority, to a private sector entity.
(3) Facilitating an opportunity for public asset owners to use new financial structures by utilizing capital from private sector investors.
(4) Offering an alternative mechanism to the PPP model.
70. In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. SEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Municipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets.
II. SEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities.
III. SEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility.
IV. SEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only II
(2) II, III and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) Only III
71. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A): ‘India Stack’ has enabled an online, paperless and cashless digital access to various public and private services. This has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.
Reason (R): India Stack consists of two interconnected layers, and of these, the ‘Payment Layer’ has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
72. Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India:
(1) Food Inflation > Headline Inflation > Core Inflation
(2) Headline Inflation > Food Inflation > Core Inflation
(3) (Food Inflation = Headline Inflation) < Core Inflation
(4) Core Inflation > Food Inflation > Headline Inflation
73. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with inflation?
I. Cost-push inflation cycle of milk is becoming more and more pronounced in India.
II. The Bharat Atta initiative of the Government has played a considerable role in containing wheat inflation in India.
III. Retail Inflation has considerably increased in the beginning of 2024 owing to increasing commodity prices.
IV. The Bharat Dal initiative has also been extended to include moong dal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) Only II
74. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms?
I. EASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India.
II. EASE Next programme had just one (01) priority — the Common Reforms Agenda.
III. Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0.
IV. EASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only III
(2) I, II and III
(3) II and IV
(4) I and IV
75. Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme?
I. This scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises.
II. Non-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with.
III. For drawal of Working Capital up to ₹ 10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit.
IV. Besides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) I, II and III
(4) Only IV
76. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI):
I. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
II. The RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters.
III. There has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception.
IV. ‘Consumer Centricity’ is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?
(1) II and IV
(2) I, II and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) Only III
77. Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India?
I. Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation.
II. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base.
III. ‘Tenor Premium’ is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR).
IV. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) I and IV
(2) Only III
(3) Only IV
(4) I, III and IV
78. In the context of India’s fight against poverty, consider the following statements:
I. Unlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of ‘Alkire-Foster’ (AF) methodology.
II. The urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population.
III. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements.
IV. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?
(1) I and IV
(2) Only III
(3) I and III
(4) None are valid
79. In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market.
II. The fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
III. Eligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
IV. The fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only III
(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II and III
80. With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme.
Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Artificial Intelligence (AI) sector only.
Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting ‘proof of concept’ trials.
Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
I and II
II, III and IV
III and IV
Only I
81.Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A):
The National Product measures all goods and services that arise out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes as a result of the economic activity. These two are synonymous.
Reason (R) :
The Production of goods and services is the outcome of the use of capital and labour, along with the raw materials, and this automatically generates income.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
82. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
The ‘Peace Clause’ under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives.
The ‘Green Box’ prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions.
The ‘Reduction Commitments’ are expressed in terms of a “Total Aggregate Measurement of Support” which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure.
Any support that would normally be placed in the ‘Amber Box’, is not to be placed in the ‘Blue Box’ even if the support mandates farmers to limit production.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
III and IV
I, II and IV
Only III
I and II
83. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :
Assertion (A) :
Coal washing results in increased generation efficiency and reduced investment costs. However, the use of washed coal in India is still limited.
Reason (R) :
The limited establishment of coal washeries may be attributed to the perception that coal washing by increasing the cost of electricity generation, would adversely impact the plants in terms of ‘merit order’ scheduling.
Code :
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
84. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
Achieving Goal 10 will require an entire reform of the financial system that promotes equitable pay and decent work for young people.
NITI Aayog has developed the National Indicator Framework (NIF) for facilitating monitoring of SDGs in India.
‘Mission LiFE’ aims to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production.
The concept of global citizenship embedded in Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is a reference term that indicates flexible citizenship rights across countries for the purpose of facilitating better labour markets.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
All
I, II and IV
Only III
II and IV
85. Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development?
Two countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development.
A country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people.
In Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men.
Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality.
According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns — planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
IV and V
I, III and V
II and III
I, II and IV
86. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare?
I. Telemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub.
II. The Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs).
III. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from ₹ 2.5 lakh to ₹ 5 lakh per annum per family.
IV. ‘Aarogya Aasara’ Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I and IV
(2) II, III and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) I, III and IV
87. In connection with transport and infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on Krishna river.
II. The Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport had been started with a corpus fund that is sourced from National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).
III. Infrastructure investments in Andhra Pradesh are strictly implemented only with reference to strategic investments like ports and industrial corridors, but not with reference to community assets.
IV. Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being developed in Andhra Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) I, II and III
(2) Only IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only II
88. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 – 27?
I. To achieve a minimum contribution of 25% by industry in the State GDP
II. To provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks
III. To envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment
IV. To focus on becoming a 'Plug and Play State' for investments
V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application
Select the answer using the codes given below :
(1) II, III and V
(2) I, II, III and V
(3) Only V
(4) III and IV
89. Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023)?
I. The objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MTPA in the next five years.
II. New and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy.
III. All the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries.
IV. The Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from ‘Third-Party/Power exchange’.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) II and III
(2) I and IV
(3) I, II and III
(4) III and IV
90. Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh?
I. Andhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR – National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion.
II. Andhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector.
III. For the FY 2024 – 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP.
IV. The technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as ‘Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)’ technology.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
I and IV
II and III
II, III and IV
Only II
Part D: Geography
91. Following are the intrusive landforms of volcanic activity and their characteristic features:
Batholiths : Huge mass of igneous rocks, usually granite at the deeper layers of the crust.
Phacoliths : Large igneous mounds with a dome-shaped upper surface.
Dykes : Wall-like structures developed by solidifying almost perpendicular to the ground.
Sills : The near horizontal bodies of intrusive igneous rocks.
Which of the above are correctly matched?
I, II and III
I, II and IV
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
92. Consider the following statements
Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety.
Almost one-fourth of the Earth's crust is composed of feldspar and quartz.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them
93. Identify the incorrect statement :
(1) Geomorphic processes bring about changes in the configuration of the surface of the Earth.
(2) Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes.
(3) The endogenic and exogenic forces cause physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials.
(4) Orogeny is the continental building process.
94. Soil formation is controlled by the following factors:
I. Parent material
II. Topography
III. Climate
IV. Biological activity
V. Time
Which of the above are active factors?
(1) I, II and III
(2) I and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
95. Match the following :
| List-I (Clouds) | List-II (Description) |
| A. Cirrus | I. Milky appearance |
| B. Cirrostratus | II. Silky appearance |
| C. Cirrocumulus | III. Cauliflower structure |
| D. Cumulus | IV. Small globular masses |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | IV | III | II | I |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
96. Consider the following statements
I. Doldrums are the strong winds that have rapid surface movement.
II. The prevailing trade wind direction in northern hemisphere is northwest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them
97. Identify the incorrect statement on extra-tropical cyclones :
(1) These develop in the mid and high latitudes.
(2) They do not have a clear frontal system.
(3) They affect a large area as compared to the tropical cyclones.
(4) They can originate over the land and sea.
98. Consider the following :
Dry winter season
No dry season
Dry hot summer
Dry and very severe winter
Which of the above are not the characteristic features of Mediterranean Climate?
I, II and III
I, II and IV
II, III and IV
I, III and IV
99. Guyot is :
A mountain with pointed summit rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean.
A deep valley sometimes found cutting across the continental shelves and slopes.
A flat topped seamount showing the evidence of gradual subsidence through stages.
A low island found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression.
100. Consider the following statements :
I. In general, the terrigenous deposits are derived from the land and are mainly deposited on the continental shelves.
II. From the shore onwards, there is a gradual increase in the coarseness of the terrigenous deposits.
III. The muds, the finest materials, are the terrigenous deposits.
IV. The colouring of the muds depends upon their chemical content.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II and IV
101. Consider the following statements:
I. The Great Rift Valley in East Africa forms a series of lakes.
II. Most of these lakes are fresh water lakes.
III. Lake Malawi is at the southern end in the Rift Valley.
IV. Lake Victoria, the largest one, is a part of the Rift Valley.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) I, III and IV
102. Consider the following countries
Chile
Venezuela
Ecuador
Peru
Colombia
Which of the above South American countries have a Pacific coastline?
I, II, III and IV
I, II, IV and V
I, III, IV and V
I, III and IV only
103. Identify the incorrect statement:
(1) Taiga is the largest land biome in the world.
(2) This cold biome stretches across the northern portion of North America, Europe and Asia.
(3) Within this biome, there is a narrow range of temperatures between the winter and summer seasons.
(4) Precipitation in this biome is moderately high throughout the year with snow occurring during the winter months.
104. Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct ?
Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains.
They are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states.
The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite.
The longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
II, III and IV
I, II and III
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
105. Match the following Climatic regions of India according to Koeppen’s scheme :
| List-I (Type of Climate) | List-II (Areas) |
| A. Monsoon with short dry season | I. West coast of India, south of Goa |
| B. Monsoon with dry summer | II. Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu |
| C. Monsoon with dry winter | III. Most of North-East India |
| D. Semi-arid Steppe climate | IV. Northwestern Gujarat |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | III | I | IV | II |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
106. Within India, Ganga river basin has the largest catchment area. After that, following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order :
Indus > Brahmaputra > Godavari > Krishna
Brahmaputra > Indus > Godavari > Krishna
Indus > Godavari > Krishna > Brahmaputra
Brahmaputra > Indus > Krishna > Godavari
107. Peaty soils are one of the major soils of India. These are found in :
the areas of low rainfall with low leaching activity.
the areas of high temperature and high rainfall with intense leaching.
the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity with good vegetation.
the areas of semi-arid climate with salinity.
108. In India, Sholas are :
Tropical forests found in the Bastar region
Tropical evergreen forests of Andaman & Nicobar islands
Moist deciduous forests in the North-eastern states
Temperate forests in the Anaimalai and Palani hills
109. In Andhra Pradesh, Dharwar types of rocks are found in :
The Krishna basin
The Godavari delta region
The Kurnool region
The Chittoor and Nellore region
110. Match the following :
| List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh) | List-II (Endangered Species) |
| A. Coringa | I. Great Indian Bustard |
| B. Gundla Brahmeswaram | II. Jerdon's Courser |
| C. Rollapadu | III. Saltwater Crocodile |
| D. Sri Lankamalleswara | IV. Tiger |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | III | I | IV | II |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
111. Match the following :
| List-I (Hunters/Nomadic tribes) | List-II (Region) |
| A. Pygmies | I. East Africa |
| B. Masai | II. Congo basin |
| C. Semangs | III. Borneo |
| D. Punan | IV. Malaysia |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | III | I | IV | II |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
112. Match the following :
| List-I (Slash and burn agriculture) | List-II (Practising region) |
| A. Ladang | I. Central America |
| B. Milpa | II. Indonesia |
| C. Roca | III. Central Africa |
| D. Masole | IV. Brazil |
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | III | I | IV | II |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
113. Identify the incorrect statement on the linguistic diversity of India :
(1) In 1961 census, 1652 languages were listed as mother tongues in India.
(2) Kachchi and Sindhi are Indo-European languages.
(3) Austric languages are spoken by the tribal groups in Jharkhand.
(4) Dardi is a Sino-Tibetan language.
114. Following are the regions of Iron and Steel industry in the world :
The Atlantic coast region : The United States
The Ural region : Russia
The Ruhr region : Eastern Europe
The North-eastern and Central parts : The United Kingdom
Which of the above are correctly matched?
I, II and III
I, II and IV
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
115. Trans-Siberian Railway runs between the stations in Russia from :
(1) Moscow to Vladivostok
(2) Moscow to Khabarovsk
(3) St. Petersburg to Vladivostok
(4) St. Petersburg to Khabarovsk
116. Consider the following states of India:
I. Punjab
II. Odisha
III. Haryana
IV. Tamil Nadu
Which of the above states have relatively high level of groundwater utilization?
I, II and III
I, II and IV
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
117. Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat crop cultivation in India :
(1) It is the second most important cereal crop.
(2) It is a Rabi crop that requires a cool growing season.
(3) It is chiefly grown in the Ganga-Satluj plains.
(4) Black soil region of the Deccan is not suitable for wheat cultivation.
118. Consider the following oil fields of India:
Digboi
Moran
Kalol
Naharkatiya
Which of the above oil fields are located in Assam?
I, II and III
I, II and IV
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
119. In India, most of the jute mills are located in:
Damodar basin
Subarnarekha basin
Hugli basin
Brahmaputra basin
120. Consider the following erstwhile districts of Andhra Pradesh :
West Godavari
East Godavari
Visakhapatnam
Srikakulam
In which of the above districts are coffee plantations mainly existing in their agency areas?
I, II and III
II and III only
I, III and IV
III and IV only
2023 PYQ’s EXPLANATION
1.Late Harappan Cultures Answer: (4) I, II, III and IV
Explanation: Late Harappan cultures transitioned into a Chalcolithic phase using stone and copper tools (I). They lacked the advanced bronze casting techniques of the urban phase (II) and moved toward a rural, village-based lifestyle (III). At Bhagwanpura, while there is an overlap with Painted Grey Ware, typical mature Harappan burnt bricks were absent in the late phase (IV).
2. Answer: (3) I, II, III and IV
Explanation:
The Later Vedic people (approx. 1000–600 BCE) were associated with four distinct types of pottery: Black and Red Ware, Black Slipped Ware, Painted Grey Ware (PGW), and Red Ware. Among these, Painted Grey Ware is the most characteristic diagnostic marker of this period. Northern Black Polished Ware (V) is excluded because it characterizes the subsequent Mahajanapada/Mauryan period (starting approx. 600 BCE).
3. Answer: (4) They never used Apabhramsa for the earliest important works of Jainism.
Explanation:
This statement is incorrect because Jaina scholars were actually pioneers in the use of Apabhramsa. They used it extensively to compose their early literature and even compiled the first grammars of the language.
(1) & (2) are correct: Early Jainas used Prakrit and its specific dialect, Ardhamagadhi, to reach the common people.
(3) is correct: In their early phase, Jainas deliberately moved away from Sanskrit, which was then the language of the Brahmanical elite.
4. Answer: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Explanation:
This is a direct match of the 16 Mahajanapadas and their capitals:
Avanti: Its northern capital was Ujjain (the southern was Mahishmati).
Koshala: Its capital was Shravasti (associated with the life of the Buddha).
Vatsa: Located on the banks of the Yamuna with its capital at Kaushambi.
Anga: Located to the east of Magadha with its capital at Champa.
5. Mauryan Art and Architecture
Answer: (3) I, II, III and IV
Explanation: All four are iconic Mauryan works. The Dhauli Elephant
(I) was carved under Ashoka. The Didarganj Yakshi
(II) is a masterpiece of Mauryan polish. The core of the Sanchi Stupa
(III) was built by Ashoka. The 80-pillared hall at Kumrahar
(IV) was the royal palace of the Mauryas.
6. Central Asian Cultural Influence
Answer: (3) II, III, IV and V
Explanation: The Shakas and Kushans introduced "stitched" clothing suitable for horse-riding, specifically trousers, heavy long coats, helmets, and high boots. While turbans (I) were known in India earlier, the specific combination of the other four items is the hallmark of Central Asian influence during this period.
7. Satavahana Administration
Answer: (2) Military camps and settlements serving as administrative centres Explanation: In Satavahana inscriptions, Katakas and Skandhavaras refer to military encampments that also functioned as temporary or mobile administrative headquarters for the king and his officials.
8. Gupta Dynasty History Answer: (2) II only
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect because it was Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) who defeated the Shakas, not Chandragupta I.
Statement II is correct; Samudragupta followed a policy of Dakshinapatha (conquest and release), where he defeated southern kings but reinstated them as tributaries rather than annexing their territory permanently.
9. Sangam Society Answer: (2) Rich peasants of the fourth caste
Explanation: In the Sangam social hierarchy, the Vellalars were the wealthy landed peasantry. They held significant social and political power, often serving in administrative roles or as local chieftains.
10. Pallava Rulers and Political Events
Answer: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation:
A. Sivaskandavarman (II): He was an early Pallava ruler during whose time Kanchi was established as the Pallava capital and center of power.
B. Vishnugopa (I): He was the Pallava ruler mentioned in the Allahabad Pillar inscription as having been defeated by the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta during his southern expedition.
C. Narasimhavarman-I (IV): Also known as Mamalla, he defeated the Chalukya king Pulakesin-II and earned the title 'Vatapikonda' after the destruction of Vatapi.
D. Nandivarman-II (III): During his reign, the Pallavas suffered a major setback when the Chalukya king Vikramaditya-II captured Kanchi.
11. Rashtrakutas
Answer: (4) Krishna-III : famous rock-cut temple of Shiva at Ellora
Explanation:
The statement is incorrect because the famous Kailasa Temple (Rock-cut Shiva temple) at Ellora was built by Krishna I, not Krishna III.
(1) Amoghavarsha: Correct. He authored Kavirajamarga, the earliest available work on rhetoric and poetics in the Kannada language.
(2) Dantidurga: Correct. He was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Empire, famously performing the Hiranya-garbha ritual at Ujjain.
(3) Vallabharaja: Correct. This was a title often used by Rashtrakuta kings (specifically Indra III during Al-Masudi's visit). Al-Masudi referred to the Rashtrakuta king as the most powerful ruler in India.
12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas:
Answer: (1) The Chola Empire was founded by Parantaka-I
Explanation:
(1) Foundational Fact: This is incorrect. The Medieval Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya in the 9th century (c. 850 AD) when he captured Tanjore. Parantaka-I was his grandson and a later great ruler.
(2) Parantaka-I: Correct. He earned the title "Maduraikondavan" (Captor of Madurai) after defeating the Pandyan king Rajasimha II.
(3) Rajaraja-I: Correct. Known for his powerful navy, he extended the Chola influence to the Maldives and Northern Sri Lanka.
(4) Rajendra-I: Correct. After his successful military expedition to the Ganges river, he took the title Gangaikonda Chola and built the city of Gangaikondacholapuram as his new capital.
13. Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque
Answer: (2) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Explanation:
Quwwat-ul-Islam (Islam ki Takat) masjid ka nirman Mamluk vansh ke sansthapak Qutb-ud-din Aibak ne 1192-1198 AD ke beech karwaya tha. Yeh Delhi ki sabse purani masjido mein se ek hai aur ise purane Hindu aur Jain mandiro ke avasheshon (remains) ka upyog karke banaya gaya tha. Halanki Iltutmish aur Ala-ud-din Khalji ne baad mein iska vistar (expansion) kiya, par mukhya nirman Aibak ne hi shuru kiya tha.
14. Persian Traveller Abdur Razzaq
Answer: (3) Devaraya-II
Explanation:
Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador from Persia (sent by Shah Rukh), visited the Vijayanagara Empire in 1443 AD during the reign of Devaraya II. He left a glowing account of the city’s wealth and grandeur, famously stating that "the eye has not seen nor the ear heard of any place resembling it upon the whole earth."
15. Answer: (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Explanation:
A. Vallabhacharya (II): He was a Telugu philosopher who founded the Pushti sect; his influence was heavily felt in the Gujarat and Rajasthan regions (associated with the Shrinathji temple).
B. Tulsidas (I): The author of Ramcharitmanas, he spent most of his life in Varanasi and Ayodhya in Uttar Pradesh.
C. Sri Chaitanya (III): A major figure of the Bhakti movement dedicated to Lord Krishna, he hailed from and transformed the spiritual landscape of Bengal.
D. Tukaram (IV): A prominent Varkari saint and poet from Maharashtra, famous for his Abhangas.
16. Sher Shah’s Land Revenue Administration
Answer: (1) I and II
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Sher Shah classified land into three categories—good, middle, and bad—based on the average yield of various crops.
Statement II is correct: He introduced a uniform system of measurement using the Gaz-i-Sikandari (32 digits) and the Jarib (rope) to ensure accurate surveying.
Statement III is incorrect: Sher Shah generally collected 1/3 (one-third) of the average produce as land revenue, not 1/4. The tax could be paid in cash or kind, though cash was preferred.
17. Mughal Structures under Akbar
Answer: (4) I, II, III and IV
Explanation: All four structures were commissioned or completed during the reign of Akbar:
I. Tomb of Salim Chishti: Built in Fatehpur Sikri as a mark of respect for the Sufi saint.
II. Buland Darwaza: The "Gate of Victory" at Fatehpur Sikri, built to commemorate Akbar's victory over Gujarat.
III. Tomb of Humayun: Though commissioned by Bega Begum, it was constructed in Delhi during the early years of Akbar’s reign and is the first major example of Mughal architecture.
IV. Jami Masjid: The congregational mosque at Fatehpur Sikri, often referred to as the "Glory of the City," was built under Akbar's direct supervision.
18. Match the Rulers and their Positions
Answer: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Explanation:
A. Husain Ali Khan (I): Along with his brother Abdulla Khan, he was one of the famous Sayyid Brothers, known as "King Makers" in the later Mughal era.
B. Murshid Quli Khan (II): Originally appointed as the Diwan of Bengal by Aurangzeb, he became the first independent Nawab of Bengal.
C. Chin Qilich Khan (III): Also known as Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah, he founded the independent state of Hyderabad in 1724.
D. Safdar Jung (IV): He was the second Nawab of Awadh (successor to Saadat Khan) and also served as the Wazir of the Mughal Empire.
19. Kakatiya Rulers and Events
Answer: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation:
A. Rudradeva (II): He was the first sovereign ruler of the Kakatiya dynasty. He commissioned the construction of the famous Thousand Pillar Temple (Veyisthambala Gudi) at Hanumakonda in 1163 AD.
B. Ganapatideva (I): He was the greatest of the Kakatiya rulers. He recognized the strategic importance of Warangal and shifted the capital from Hanumakonda to Orugallu (Warangal), where he began the construction of the formidable stone fort.
C. Rudramadevi (IV): During the reign of this powerful female monarch, the famous Venetian traveler Marco Polo visited the port of Motupalli in coastal Andhra and wrote about her efficient administration and the kingdom's prosperity.
D. Prataparudradeva (III): He was the last great ruler of the dynasty. His reign saw the repeated invasions of the Delhi Sultanate, most notably the expedition of Malik Kafur (the general of Ala-ud-din Khalji) in 1309–1310 AD.
20. Chronology of Later Mughals
Answer: (3) Bahadur Shah > Jahandar Shah > Farruq Siyar > Muhammad Shah > Shah Alam II
Explanation:
The sequence of the Later Mughal emperors following Aurangzeb's death in 1707 is as follows:
Bahadur Shah I (1707–1712)
Jahandar Shah (1712–1713)
Farruq Siyar (1713–1719)
Muhammad Shah (1719–1748)
Shah Alam II (1759–1806)
21. Shivaji’s Administration (Ashta Pradhan)
Answer: (4) The Master of Ceremonies and helped the king in foreign affairs
Explanation:
In Shivaji’s council of eight ministers (Ashta Pradhan), the Dabir (also known as Sumant) was the Foreign Minister. He was responsible for dealing with foreign powers, receiving ambassadors, and maintaining diplomatic relations.
Note: The officer responsible for intelligence and household affairs was the Vakianavis.
22. Chronology of French Settlements
Answer: (1) Surat > Pondicherry > Yanam > Mahe > Karaikal
Explanation:
The French East India Company established its factories in the following order:
Surat (1668): First French factory in India.
Pondicherry (1674): Became the headquarters.
Yanam (1723): Located in Andhra Pradesh.
Mahe (1725): Located on the Malabar Coast.
Karaikal (1739): Located in Tamil Nadu.
23. Doctrine of Lapse
Answer: (3) II, III and IV
Explanation:
Lord Dalhousie used the Doctrine of Lapse to annex states where the ruler died without a natural male heir.
Satara (III): Annexed in 1848 (the first state to be annexed).
Jhansi (II): Annexed in 1853.
Nagpur (IV): Annexed in 1854.
Exceptions: Awadh (I) was annexed in 1856 on the grounds of "misgovernance," and Sindh (V) was annexed in 1843 through military conquest before Dalhousie's time.
24. Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18th Century:
Answer: (4) Dayaram : Marathi
Explanation:
(1) Tayumanavar: Correct. He was a famous Tamil spiritual poet and philosopher known for his work on Saiva Siddhanta.
(2) Warris Shah: Correct. He was a legendary Punjabi Sufi poet, most famous for his rendition of the tragic romance Heer Ranjha.
(3) Kunchan Nambiar: Correct. He was a prominent Malayalam poet and the inventor of the Thullal art form, known for his satirical and social commentary.
(4) Dayaram: Incorrect. Dayaram (1777–1853) was a prolific Gujarati poet. He was a key figure in the Bhakti tradition of Gujarat and is best known for his Garbi (lyrical poems) dedicated to Lord Krishna. He did not write in Marathi.
25. Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Answer: (1) I and II
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Vidyasagar was a relentless crusader for women's rights, specifically championing female education and establishing numerous schools for girls in Bengal.
Statement II is correct: He was the primary force behind the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act of 1856. He used ancient Hindu texts to prove that widow remarriage was sanctioned by the Shastras.
Statement III is incorrect: Sambad Kaumudi was a Bengali weekly newspaper published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, not Vidyasagar. Vidyasagar was associated with the newspaper Shome Prakash.
26. William Bentinck’s Reforms
Answer: (4) Establishment of universities for the first time
Explanation:
(1) Land Revenue: Correct. Bentinck oversaw the introduction of the Mahalwari System in the North-Western Provinces (Regulation IX of 1833).
(2) Abolition of Sati: Correct. He passed the Sati Abolition Act in 1829, declaring the practice illegal and punishable by criminal courts.
(3) Female Infanticide: Correct. He took vigorous steps to suppress the practice of female infanticide and human sacrifice.
(4) Universities: Incorrect. The first three universities in India (Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay) were established in 1857, during the reign of Lord Canning, following the recommendations of Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch (1854). Bentinck left India in 1835.
27. Events of the Extremist Phase
Answer: (2) I and II only
Explanation: The Extremist Phase (1905–1917) is defined by the rise of militant nationalism and the rejection of "prayer and petition" methods.
I. Swadeshi Movement (1905): The first major extremist-led agitation, sparked by the Partition of Bengal.
II. Surat Split (1907): The formal break between Moderates and Extremists, marking the peak of internal ideological conflict.
III. Lucknow Pact (1916): Represents a phase of reunion and cooperation with the Muslim League rather than pure extremist agitation.
IV. Home Rule Movement (1916): While led by Tilak (an extremist), it focused on constitutional self-government and served as a transition to the Gandhian Era.
28. Events during Lord Irwin's Tenure
Answer: (4) I, II and III
Explanation:
Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931. All three events occurred within this window:
I. Visit of Simon Commission (1928): Arrived in India to review constitutional reforms, met with widespread "Simon Go Back" protests.
II. Purna Swaraj Resolution (1929): Passed during the historic Lahore Session of the Congress under Jawaharlal Nehru, declaring complete independence as the goal.
III. Launch of Dandi March (1930): Mahatma Gandhi began the Salt Satyagraha on March 12, 11930, which led to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
29. Founders of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)
Answer: (2) II, III, and IV
Explanation: The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was formed in October 1924 in Kanpur. The primary founders were:
II. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
III. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
IV. Ram Prasad Bismil
Why the others are excluded:
V. Chandra Shekhar Azad: While he was a prominent early member, he is generally considered an associate rather than a primary founder of the 1924 setup.
I. Bhagat Singh: He joined the HRA later and was instrumental in its reorganization into the HSRA (Hindustan Socialist Republican Association) in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi.
30. Praja Mandals and their Regions
Answer: (2) Balwant Rai Mehta : Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
(1) Vijay Singh Pathik: Correct. He was a lead figure in the Bijolia Peasant Movement and the Praja Mandal activities in Rajasthan.
(2) Balwant Rai Mehta: Incorrect. He was a pioneer of the States' People's movement in Gujarat (Bhavnagar State) and served as the Secretary of the All India States' People's Conference.
(3) Sewa Singh Thikriwala: Correct. He was the leader of the Praja Mandal movement in the Patiala State (Punjab).
(4) Sarangadhar Das: Correct. He was a key leader of the Praja Mandal movement in the princely states of Orissa.
31. Office of the 'Whip'
Answer: (3) II and III
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: The office of the Whip is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement II is correct: By convention, the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs serves as the Chief Whip of the Government in the Lok Sabha, assisted by the Ministers of State.
Statement III is correct: Every political party—whether ruling or opposition—appoints its own whip in the Parliament to ensure party discipline and attendance.
Statement IV is incorrect: The Whip is responsible to the party and ensures members follow the party's directions; however, the Chief Whip of the ruling party works closely with and is responsible to the Leader of the House to ensure the smooth conduct of government business.
32. Public Bill vs. Private Bill
Answer: (4) Only IV
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: If a Private Bill is passed, it becomes an Act just like any other bill. There is no special post-approval "referral to the law department" for consultation just because it was an opposition bill.
Statement II is incorrect: A Public Bill must be introduced by a Minister. A bill introduced by any other Member of Parliament (even if they belong to the ruling party but are not a minister) is considered a Private Member's Bill.
Statement III is incorrect: A Private Bill reflects the stand of an individual member on public matters. Its passage does not automatically transform it into an expression of "government policy," though it does show the will of the House.
Statement IV is correct: Despite the differences in who introduces them and the notice period required (7 days for Public, 1 month for Private), both bills follow the same general procedure (First, Second, and Third readings) to become law.
33. Reservation of State Bills for the President
Answer: (2) I, II and IV
Explanation: Under the Indian Constitution, the Governor has the power to reserve certain Bills for the President's consideration (Article 200).
I. Directive Principles (Art 31C): Bills seeking to give effect to certain DPSP (like Art 39 b/c) must be reserved to receive protection under Article 31C.
II. Article 304: This relates to restrictions on trade and commerce. If a state law imposes restrictions and lacks the prior sanction of the President, it must be reserved for assent to be valid.
IV. Repugnancy (Art 254): If a State Law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts with a Central Law, it can only prevail in that state if it is reserved for and receives the President's assent.
Note on III: While Article 288(2) mentions presidential assent for taxes on water/electricity in certain cases, it is not a "mandatory" blanket category in the same constitutional sense as the others mentioned in standard competitive exam syllabi.
34. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Answer: (4) II and IV
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly states that the CAG shall be removed from office in "like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court." * Statement II is correct: Certain corporations like LIC, RBI, and Food Corporation of India are audited exclusively by private auditors, and the CAG has no role.
Statement III is incorrect: The CAG can and does conduct Performance Audits (efficiency and economy audit) in addition to legal, regulatory, and propriety audits.
Statement IV is correct: The Constitution does not specify the qualifications or criteria for the appointment of the CAG; it leaves it to the Parliament to determine the duties and powers (CAG Act, 1971).
35. Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council
Answer: (3) Only IV
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: The GST Council was never a statutory body. It was established as a Constitutional body from the very beginning under Article 279A (inserted by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016).
Statement II is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly states (Article 279A, Clause 10) that no act or proceeding of the GST Council shall be invalid due to any vacancy or defect in the appointment of a member.
Statement III is incorrect: The GST Council is responsible for establishing a mechanism to adjudicate disputes between states or between the Centre and states. It does not refer matters to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
Statement IV is correct: One of the core functions of the Council is to recommend the threshold limit of turnover for GST exemptions (currently ₹40 lakh/₹20 lakh depending on the state and goods/services).
36. Election Commission of India (ECI)
Answer: (2) Only IV
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: The Constitution does not debar retiring Election Commissioners from further government appointments. This is a common point of criticism regarding the independence of the office.
Statement II is incorrect: In the Anoop Baranwal case, the SC primarily dealt with the appointment process (suggesting a committee of PM, LoP, and CJI). It did not mandate that Regional Commissioners be treated exactly like Election Commissioners regarding removal; the CEC still has a specific veto-like power over the removal of ECs and Regional Commissioners.
Statement III is incorrect: From its inception in 1950 until 1989, the ECI was a single-member body. It became multi-member briefly in 1989, and permanently in 1993.
Statement IV is correct: Under Article 324, the ECI is responsible for conducting elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
37. Centre–State Relations
Answer: (1) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The Punchhi Commission recommended that Governors be removed by the State Legislature, not via the President's impeachment process.
II (Invalid): Laws made by Parliament during President’s Rule can be repealed or re-enacted by the State Legislature once the rule ends.
III (Valid): The Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) recommended an Inter-State Council years before the Sarkaria Commission (1983).
IV (Invalid): Only the Rajya Sabha (not Lok Sabha) has the power to authorize Parliament to legislate on State List subjects (Art. 249).
38. Distribution of Tax Revenues
Answer: (1) II and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): Surcharges (Art. 271) go exclusively to the Centre and are not shared with States.
II (Valid): Both Article 268A and 272 were repealed by the 101st Amendment (GST Act, 2016).
III (Invalid): Tax on petroleum crude is currently levied and collected by States (as VAT).
IV (Valid): Proceeds of taxes under Article 269 are assigned to States and never enter the Consolidated Fund of India.
39. Human Rights Commissions in India
Answer: (4) I, II and III
Explanation:
I (Valid): Under the 2019 amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Centre can delegate the human rights functions of a Union Territory (like Ladakh) to an existing State Human Rights Commission (SHRC).
II (Valid): The NHRC includes two members appointed from among persons having knowledge of, or practical experience in, matters relating to human rights.
III (Valid): Although the Chairperson of an SHRC is appointed by the Governor, they can only be removed by the President. In cases of misbehavior or incapacity, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.
IV (Invalid): The NHRC or SHRC cannot inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year (not two years) from the date of the alleged violation.
40. Delimitation Exercise
Answer: (1) I, II and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): Delimitation ensures that every vote has roughly equal weight by keeping the ratio between the population and the number of seats uniform across constituencies ("one man, one vote").
II (Valid): While usually a national exercise, the Government can set up commissions for specific regions (e.g., the recent Delimitation Commission for Jammu & Kashmir).
III (Invalid): The Commission is explicitly empowered to determine the reservation of seats for SCs and STs based on population distribution.
IV (Valid): The Ministry of Law and Justice is the nodal ministry that handles the administrative and legislative aspects of the Delimitation Commission.
41. India’s Foreign Policy
Answer: (1) I and II
Explanation:
I (Valid): The Act East Policy (launched in 2014) evolved from the 1991 "Look East Policy." While it began with an economic focus, it now encompasses extensive strategic, security, and cultural ties with ASEAN and the wider Indo-Pacific.
II (Valid): The Connect Central Asia Policy (2012) was significantly bolstered in 2022 by the first India-Central Asia Summit, institutionalizing high-level engagement with the five Central Asian republics.
III (Invalid): The MAITRI initiative is actually the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative, but it is primarily led by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (not DRDO) and focuses on the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), not East Asia.
IV (Invalid): The Think West Policy is India's outreach to the Middle East (West Asia)—specifically the GCC countries, Iran, and Israel—focusing on energy security, diaspora welfare, and strategic partnerships, not Western industrialized nations.
42. Security Concerns and Developments
Answer: (1) Only IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The Hambantota port (Sri Lanka) is viewed as part of China’s "String of Pearls" strategy, funded and built by China, not Pakistan.
II (Invalid): While Chabahar (Iran) is a strategic counter to the Gwadar port, Gwadar is in Pakistan, not Yemen.
III (Invalid): IORA is an independent international organization established in 1997. It is not an extension of the UN's ESCAP.
IV (Valid): The Malabar Exercise began as a bilateral US-India drill but now includes all members of the QUAD (India, USA, Japan, and Australia), directly linking it to the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue.
43. Central Government Programmes
Answer: (2) I, II and III (Incorrect statements)
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): PM-AJAY is aimed at the upliftment of Scheduled Castes (SC), not ST communities. It merged three previous schemes (including PM Adarsh Gram Yojana) to reduce poverty among SC households.
II (Incorrect): Under PM-SYM, the monthly contribution is shared 50:50 between the beneficiary and the Central Government only. State Governments do not contribute to this pension fund.
III (Incorrect): FutureSkills Prime is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and NASSCOM. While C-DAC may be involved in specific tech areas, it is not the "key implementing agency" in the way NASSCOM is.
IV (Correct): Mission Karmayogi is the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building, built on six pillars (though often discussed alongside various competency frameworks) to reform Indian bureaucracy. Note: Since I, II, and III are definitely wrong, Option (2) is the best fit.
44. Enactment of the Budget
Answer: (1) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): An Appropriation Bill is technically a "Money Bill" that authorizes the withdrawal of funds. It often contains a clause that allows it to lapse or be "repealed" once its specific purpose for that financial year is served.
II (Invalid): While the need for a Vote on Account has been significantly reduced because the budget is passed before the new financial year begins (April 1st), the provision remains in the Constitution and can still be used if necessary.
III (Invalid): In the case of the Finance Bill, an amendment can be moved to reduce or abolish a tax, but an amendment to increase a tax cannot be moved without the President’s recommendation.
IV (Valid): Expenditure "charged upon" the Consolidated Fund (like salaries of the President, Judges, etc.) is non-votable. Parliament can discuss it, but it is not put to a vote.
45. Veto Power of the Indian President
Answer: (3) III and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The President cannot exercise Suspensive Veto for Money Bills; they must either give assent or withhold it.
II (Invalid): Absolute Veto is typically used for Private Member’s Bills or when a Cabinet resigns before assent is given. It is not a standard "at all times" power for Government Bills.
III (Valid): The Indian President can keep a bill on their desk indefinitely (Pocket Veto). The American President must return a bill within 10 days, making the Indian "pocket" larger.
IV (Valid): Veto power acts as a check and balance to prevent hasty or unconstitutional legislation by Parliament.
46. Ninth Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: (4) I and II
Explanation:
I (Valid): It was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) specifically to shield certain laws from being challenged in court for violating Fundamental Rights.
II (Valid): While it began with land reforms, it now contains various other laws, such as those related to reservation (e.g., Tamil Nadu’s 69% reservation law).
III (Invalid): While the I.R. Coelho Case (2007) ruled that laws added after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the "Basic Structure," Article 31B has not ceased to be operative; it is simply no longer a "blanket" immunity.
IV (Invalid): Laws can only be added to the Ninth Schedule through a Constitutional Amendment, which requires the power of Parliament, not the executive "Central Government" alone.
47. Territory of India vs. Union of India
Answer: (2) Only IV
Explanation:
I & IV (Refined): The "Union of India" includes only the States (which share federal power). The "Territory of India" is a wider expression that includes the States, the Union Territories, and any territories acquired in the future. Therefore, UTs are part of the "Territory" but not technically part of the "Union."
II (Invalid): Both expressions are explicitly found in the Constitution. Article 1 states: "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States" and describes the "territory of India."
III (Invalid): The First Schedule lists both the States and the Union Territories, thus it relates to the entire Territory of India.
48. Concept of ‘Equality’ in Indian Polity
Answer: (1) III and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): In India, equality is primarily safeguarded by the Constitution (Articles 14–18). Unlike the UK (Dicey’s concept), where it is derived from judicial precedents, India has a written Constitution that is the source of all laws.
II (Invalid): Article 14 explicitly includes both "Equality before the law" (British origin) and "Equal protection of the laws" (American origin).
III (Valid): Equality is not absolute. Article 194 provides privileges to members of State Legislatures, and Article 361A provides protection to publications of proceedings, creating constitutional exceptions to general equality laws.
IV (Valid): In the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995), the Supreme Court upheld National Awards (Bharat Ratna, etc.) because they recognize merit. However, they cannot be used as hereditary titles (like Maharaja/Sir), which remain abolished under Article 18.
49. Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
Answer: (3) Only IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. None of the duties under Article 51A, including 51A(i) (safeguarding public property), apply to foreigners.
II (Invalid): The Verma Committee (1999) identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some Fundamental Duties (like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act). It did not recommend implementing them "irrespective" of legal provisions but rather pointed out where laws already enforce them.
III (Invalid): The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) was decided before Fundamental Duties were even added to the Constitution (they were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976). It was later cases, like the Aruna Roy case, that discussed using duties to interpret statutes.
IV (Valid): The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee originally recommended that Parliament should provide for the imposition of penalty or punishment for refusal to observe any of the duties. However, this specific recommendation was not accepted by the government when the 42nd Amendment was passed.
50. Chronological Order of DPSP Amendments
Answer: (2) IV, I, II, III
Chronology:
IV. Article 48A (Environment Protection): Added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
I. Article 38 (Minimizing Inequalities): The second clause was added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
II. Article 45 (Early Childhood Care): Subject matter changed (to age 6) by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
III. Article 43B (Co-operative Societies): Added by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011.
51. Fundamental Rights vs. Directive Principles
Answer: (3) I, II and IV
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): In the Keshavananda Bharati case, the SC upheld the first provision of Article 31C but invalidated the second provision (which barred judicial review).
II (Incorrect): The Minerva Mills case struck down the 42nd Amendment's attempt to give all DPSPs precedence over Fundamental Rights, rather than focusing on the "second provision's scope."
III (Correct): This case established that the Constitution is built on the "bedrock of balance" between FRs and DPSPs.
IV (Incorrect): The Champakam Dorairajan (1951) view was that FRs are superior. The current view (Minerva Mills) is that they are complementary and equal, making the 1951 principle obsolete.
52. Amendment of the Constitution
Answer: (4) Only III
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced by either a Minister or a Private Member, and it does not require prior permission from the President.
II (Incorrect): While there are three ways the Constitution is amended, Article 368 itself only describes two types: (a) Special majority of Parliament, and (b) Special majority of Parliament + Ratification by half of the States. Amendments by "Simple Majority" are outside the scope of Article 368.
III (Correct): Once half of the States (e.g., 14 out of 28) ratify the bill, the requirement is met. The remaining states are not required to take action for the bill to proceed for Presidential assent.
IV (Incorrect): State Legislatures have no power to initiate or request an amendment to the Constitution (including Article 368). Their only role is to ratify certain bills passed by Parliament. The power to initiate lies solely with Parliament.
53. Basic Structure of the Constitution
Answer: (3) II and III
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): The 'Basic Structure' is a judicial innovation from the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). It is not found in the text of the Constitution nor was it enacted by Parliament.
II (Correct): Parliament can amend any part (including Fundamental Rights), provided the amendment does not destroy or alter the Basic Structure.
III (Correct): The limited amending power of Parliament is itself a feature of the Basic Structure; Parliament cannot use its power to grant itself unlimited power.
IV (Incorrect): While the 'Welfare State' is part of the Basic Structure, this was primarily emphasized in cases like Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills. The Kumar Padma Prasad case mainly dealt with the qualifications of judges.
54. Parliamentary Privileges
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
(1) Incorrect: Privileges are enjoyed both collectively (by the House) and individually (by members).
(2) Incorrect: Outsiders can also be punished for contempt of the House.
(3) Incorrect: 'Contempt of the House' has a wider implication; any act that obstructs the House is contempt, even if it doesn't violate a specific privilege.
(4) Correct: Immunity from arrest is restricted to civil cases (40 days before/after and during the session). It does not apply to criminal cases or preventive detention.
55. Equal Status: Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Answer: (2) II and IV
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): Rajya Sabha cannot introduce or reject Money Bills; it has very limited power here compared to Lok Sabha.
II (Correct): Reports of the CAG, Finance Commission, and UPSC are laid before and considered by both Houses equally.
III (Incorrect): The resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can only be initiated in the Rajya Sabha (special power).
IV (Correct): Proclamations for National Emergency, President’s Rule, and Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses.
56. Sources of Revenue for Panchayats
Answer: (1) I, II and III
Explanation:
I (Correct): The Central Finance Commission recommends measures to augment the State's Consolidated Fund to supplement Panchayat resources, including redistribution of tax proceeds.
II (Correct): Panchayats can receive loans and grants-in-aid from the State Government to fund local projects.
III (Correct): While the State Finance Commission (Art 243-I) provides a formal framework for devolution, the State Government retains the sovereign power to devolve funds through legislation or executive orders.
IV (Incorrect): Internal Resource Generation (taxes, fees, tolls) is a power given to all Panchayats by state laws, not just those in Scheduled Areas.
57. Revenue Generation of Panchayati Raj Tiers
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Statistically and legally, Gram Panchayats (village level) generally collect more own-source revenue compared to the Intermediate (Mandal/Block) and District (Zilla) levels.
Reason (R) is true: Most State Acts grant taxation powers (like property tax, house tax, and professional tax) primarily to Gram Panchayats. The higher two tiers (Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads) usually lack direct taxing authority and must rely on non-tax sources like tolls, fees, and government grants, which explains why they are less "self-placed" for resource collection.
58. Lapsing of Bills on Dissolution of Lok Sabha
Answer: (4) None
Explanation:
I (Invalid): A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha lapses.
II (Invalid): A bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse, even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
III (Valid but not in codes): A bill pending President's assent does not lapse.
IV (Invalid): A bill pending in Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse.
Note: Since statements I, II, and IV are definitely invalid, and III is the only valid one, but no option reflects "Only III" correctly in the context of the others, "None" is the technical choice if the codes are strictly applied.
59. Law Commission of India
Answer: (3) All (Incorrect statements)
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): It is an executive body (not quasi-judicial).
II (Incorrect): It submits reports/opinions to the Ministry of Law and Justice (Government), not directly to the President.
III (Incorrect): The Government is required to lay the reports of the Law Commission before Parliament.
IV (Incorrect): The Commission has the power to undertake research and review laws suo motu (on its own motion).
60. Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Answer: (4) None
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The term "Socialist" (not democratic) is often described as a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily toward Gandhian Socialism.
II (Invalid): "Republic" indicates that the Head of State (President) is elected, not the Prime Minister (who is the Head of Government).
III (Invalid): Liberty in the Preamble is not absolute; it is qualified by reasonable restrictions defined in the Fundamental Rights (Article 19).
IV (Invalid): "Fraternity" has always aimed to ensure two things simultaneously: the dignity of the individual AND the unity and integrity of the nation.
61. Projected High Growth of Indian Economy
Answer: (1) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) is the largest driver of India's GDP; its resilience is a primary reason for high growth projections.
II (Invalid): The government has actually increased focus on large Capital Expenditure (Capex) to crowd in private investment, not shifted away from it.
III (Invalid): While air traffic has increased, a reduction in FMCG volume indicates weak rural demand, which is a negative signal, not a reason for high growth.
IV (Valid): The fading of El Niño improves monsoon prospects, leading to better Rabi crops and boosting the agricultural economy.
62. Progress of Digital Payments in India
Answer: (4) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): The responsibility for promoting digital payments was shifted from MeitY to the Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the Ministry of Finance to better align with banking goals.
II (Invalid): e-RUPI is exactly the opposite; it is a person-specific and purpose-specific digital voucher system.
III (Invalid): ‘Hello! UPI’ was developed by the NPCI itself (National Payments Corporation of India), not a private startup consortium.
IV (Valid): ‘UPI LITE X’ allows users to send and receive money offline, specifically designed to work in areas with poor connectivity (using NFC technology).
63. Tourism Sector in India
Answer: (4) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): NIDHI (National Integrated Database of Hospitality Industry) is a gateway to provide electronic services to the hospitality sector.
II (Invalid): The goal for 2047 is to make India a $1 trillion tourism economy, but the target is 100 million international tourists, not "investors."
III (Invalid): While Hotel Occupancy and revenue rates are recovering, they are subject to high volatility; "rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise" is an overstatement in economic survey terms.
IV (Valid): India’s Services PMI has remained consistently above 50, indicating the sector is in the expansion zone.
64. Green Energy Initiatives (Interim Budget FY25)
Answer: (2) II and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): VGF was proposed for offshore wind energy projects (initial 1 GW), not solar projects.
II (Valid): The budget reaffirmed the goal of 100 MT coal gasification and liquefaction capacity by 2030 to reduce imports.
III (Invalid): The budget proposed mandatory (not optional) blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in CNG and PNG.
IV (Valid): Financial assistance is provided for biomass aggregation machinery to support bio-energy collection.
V (Invalid): The payment security mechanism was proposed for e-buses, not bio-manufacturing.
65. Recovery of India's External Sector
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
(1) Correct: India's external sector improved largely because the decline in merchandise imports (due to lower global commodity prices) was sharper than the moderation in exports. This narrowed the trade deficit.
(2) Incorrect: Increasing commodity prices (like oil) actually hurt India's external sector by increasing the import bill.
(3) Incorrect: Net services receipts (IT and professional services) have been increasing, which helps offset the merchandise trade deficit.
(4) Incorrect: Historically, world trade volume often grows slower than output during global slowdowns, but this is a global trend, not the specific cause of India's domestic recovery.
66. Tax Reforms and Productivity
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains A.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Simple tax systems (like GST or reduced corporate tax) lower compliance burdens, allowing businesses to focus on efficiency and productivity.
Reason (R) is true: By removing deadweight costs (economic waste caused by inefficient taxes) and ensuring resources are allocated based on market merit rather than tax-saving strategies, these reforms directly drive GDP and employment growth.
Connection: The reason perfectly explains how the productivity gains mentioned in the assertion are achieved.
67. National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP)
Answer: (2) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): NIP includes both economic (energy, roads) and social infrastructure (education, health).
II (Invalid): It covers both greenfield (new) and brownfield (existing/expansion) projects.
III (Valid): Its primary goal is to provide a projected view of projects to attract both domestic and foreign investment.
IV (Invalid): The India Investment Grid (IIG) is the active platform specifically used to host and track NIP projects; it hasn't ceased operation.
68. e-NAM and APLM Act
Answer: (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Currently, most e-NAM (Electronic National Agriculture Market) transactions remain intra-mandi (within the same market) due to logistical challenges and lack of standardized quality testing across states.
Reason (R) is false: The APLM Act, 2017 was designed specifically to promote inter-mandi and inter-state trade by creating a single unified market. It does not focus on restricting trade to intra-mandi transactions; rather, it aims to break those local monopolies.
69. Strategic Objective of Asset Monetization
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
(1) Incorrect: It is the opposite; it unlocks value in public sector assets using private sector capital.
(2) Incorrect: It involves a fixed-term lease or contract, not an "indefinite period." The ownership remains with the government.
(3) Correct: It allows public asset owners to leverage new financial structures (like InvITs) to tap into private investment for infrastructure development.
(4) Incorrect: It is not an alternative to PPP; it is often a form of PPP used specifically for existing (brownfield) assets.
70. SEBI and Capital Markets
Answer: (1) Only II
Explanation:
I (Invalid): SEBI does not "exempt regulations"; it formulates and streamlines regulations for InvITs and Municipal Bonds to make them more attractive and transparent.
II (Valid): SEBI mandated that large corporates must raise 25% of their incremental borrowings through the issuance of debt securities (corporate bonds) to deepen the bond market.
III (Invalid): SEBI actually reduced the minimum face value (ticket size) of debt securities (from ₹1 lakh to ₹10,000) to increase retail participation, not "increased" it.
IV (Invalid): The Retail Direct Scheme is an initiative by the RBI, not a joint venture with SEBI, to allow individuals to invest directly in Government Securities (G-Secs).
71. India Stack and e-KYC
Answer: (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: India Stack (Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, etc.) has revolutionized digital access, lowering e-KYC costs from roughly ₹1000 to ₹5 per person.
Reason (R) is false: India Stack consists of four layers (Presence, Paperless, Cashless, and Consent), not two. Furthermore, it is the Paperless Layer (Aadhaar/e-KYC), not the "Payment Layer," that directly reduced e-KYC costs.
72. Inflation Trends in India
Answer: (1) Food Inflation > Headline Inflation > Core Inflation
Explanation:
Trend: In recent cycles (specifically the 2024-2026 economic period), Food Inflation has remained the most volatile and highest driver.
Headline Inflation: Includes food and fuel; it sits in the middle as it is pulled up by food but moderated by other sectors.
Core Inflation: Excludes volatile food and fuel; it has remained consistently lower and more stable (the "disinflationary" zone) compared to the other two.
73. Inflation and Government Initiatives
Answer: (4) Only II
Explanation:
I (Invalid): While milk prices fluctuate, the term "cost-push cycle" is generally not used by the Economic Survey to describe a specific structural milk crisis compared to broader food volatility.
II (Valid): The Bharat Atta initiative (providing wheat flour at subsidized rates) was a key policy intervention that successfully helped contain retail wheat inflation.
III (Invalid): Retail inflation in early 2024 actually showed a moderating trend (falling toward the RBI's target range) rather than a "considerable increase."
IV (Invalid): The Bharat Dal initiative focuses on Chana Dal. While the government monitors Moong, it is not currently branded/distributed under the "Bharat Dal" retail scheme.
74. EASE Reforms
Answer: (1) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): EASE is a common reform agenda for PSBs, steered by the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) and the Ministry of Finance, not a "board of directors" of various FIs.
II (Invalid): EASE Next (which includes EASE 5.0 and 6.0) has dual priorities: the Common Reforms Agenda AND Bank-specific Strategic Roadmaps.
III (Valid): One of the core pillars of EASE 6.0 is "Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement."
IV (Invalid): EASE reforms are specifically designed for Public Sector Banks (PSBs), not NBFCs.
75. Stand-Up India Scheme
Answer: (1) II and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The scheme is exclusively for greenfield (first-time) enterprises.
II (Valid): Non-individual enterprises are eligible if at least 51% of the shareholding/controlling stake is held by an SC/ST or Woman entrepreneur.
III (Invalid): For working capital above ₹10 lakh, it is sanctioned by Cash Credit; up to ₹10 lakh, it is usually provided via Rupay Debit Card.
IV (Valid): Loans can be secured by collateral or a guarantee from the CGFSIL.
76. RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI)
Answer: (3) III and IV
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The base year for RBI-DPI is March 2018 (set at 100), not 2021.
II (Invalid): It consists of 5 broad parameters, not 6.
III (Valid): The index has shown a consistent upward trend since its inception, reflecting rapid digitization.
IV (Valid): "Consumer Centricity" is indeed one of the 5 parameters (alongside Payment Enablers, Infrastructure, Demand-side factors, and Supply-side factors).
77. Banking Mechanism in India
Answer: (2) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): Increasing CRR decreases credit creation as banks have less money to lend.
II (Invalid): ICRR targets specific excess liquidity over a certain period (e.g., during demonetization or huge cash inflows), not the "borrower lending base."
III (Valid): Tenor Premium (cost for lending for longer durations) is a key part of the MCLR calculation formula.
IV (Invalid): MSF is a short-term (overnight) rate and is typically kept equal to the Bank Rate.
78. India’s Fight Against Poverty
Answer: (2) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): Both the Global and the National MPI use the Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology, which identifies poverty using dual cutoffs (incidence and intensity).
II (Invalid): According to NITI Aayog’s reports, the rural population has witnessed a much faster and larger decline in poverty compared to the urban population.
III (Valid): The PMGKP was launched to provide a safety net, including insurance for healthcare workers and food grain entitlements (free food grains under PMGKAY).
IV (Invalid): The MPI is the product (multiplication) of the Headcount Ratio (H - incidence) and the Intensity of Poverty (A), not the sum. ($MPI = H \times A$).
79. Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF)
Answer: (1) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The fund is established through Priority Sector Lending (PSL) shortfalls, similar to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).
II (Invalid): UIDF is meant for Public Agencies (Urban Local Bodies, State Governments) to create infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, not exclusively for private agencies.
III (Valid): Projects must be aligned with MoHUA programs like AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission, etc.
IV (Invalid): The fund is managed by the National Housing Bank (NHB), not municipal cooperative banks.
80. Startup Ecosystem in India
Answer: (3) III and IV
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): MANAGE is indeed one of the key nodal institutes presiding over the selection and training under the RKVY-RAFTAAR (Agri-Business Incubation) program.
II (Incorrect): The MAARG Portal is a mentorship platform for startups across all sectors, not just Artificial Intelligence.
III (Correct): The SISFS provides funding for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, and market entry.
IV (Correct): The FFS does not invest directly in startups; instead, it provides capital to SEBI-registered AIFs (daughter funds), which then invest in startups.
81. National Product and National Income
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: In macroeconomics, National Product (the market value of all final goods and services) and National Income (the sum of all factor payments like wages, interest, rent, and profit) are essentially two sides of the same coin. They are synonymous because the value of everything produced is eventually distributed as income to the factors of production.
Reason (R) is true: Production doesn't happen in a vacuum; it requires labor, capital, and land. The revenue generated from selling these goods is used to pay for these inputs, thereby automatically generating income. This circular flow of income explains why the total product equals the total income.
82. WTO Scenarios and Agricultural Subsidies
Answer: (3) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The ‘Peace Clause’ actually provides protection to developing nations. It allows them to exceed the 10% ceiling (De Minimis) for Public Stockholding for food security purposes without being legally challenged by other members.
II (Invalid): The ‘Green Box’ contains subsidies that cause minimal or no trade distortion. It permits (rather than prohibits) direct payments to producers as long as they are "decoupled" (not linked to current production levels).
III (Valid): The Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS) is indeed the "Amber Box" measurement that combines all price supports and subsidies into one single figure to track reduction commitments.
IV (Invalid): This is the definition of the ‘Blue Box’. Support that would normally be in the Amber Box is moved to the Blue Box if it requires farmers to limit production (to reduce trade distortion).
83. Coal Washing and Efficiency
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Coal washing removes ash and non-combustible matter, which improves the calorific value and generation efficiency of power plants. It also reduces wear and tear on equipment (maintenance costs) and transport costs per unit of heat. However, adoption in India remains low due to the added processing cost.
Reason (R) is true: Power plants are dispatched based on 'Merit Order Despatch' (MOD), which prioritizes the cheapest sources of electricity. Because washed coal is more expensive than raw coal, power plants fear that using it will increase their variable cost, pushing them lower in the merit order and causing them to lose out on power purchase contracts.
84. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
Answer: (3) Only III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): Goal 10 focuses on Reducing Inequalities (within and among countries). While equitable pay is a part of it, the goal for "decent work and economic growth" is primarily Goal 8.
II (Invalid): The National Indicator Framework (NIF) was developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not NITI Aayog. (NITI Aayog develops the SDG India Index based on the NIF).
III (Valid): Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) is an India-led global movement to nudge individuals and communities toward mindful and deliberate utilization, influencing both production and consumption cycles.
IV (Invalid): Global Citizenship under SDG 4 (Quality Education) refers to educating people to be aware of global challenges and values (human rights, peace, non-violence). It is a pedagogical and ethical concept, not a legal term for "flexible citizenship rights" or labor market facilitation.
85. Human Development
Answer: (1) IV and V
Explanation:
I (Invalid): If countries have the same GNI but different HDI scores, it proves that development is distinct from growth and depends on how income is invested in people.
II (Invalid): If there is no inequality, the IHDI and HDI scores would be identical.
III (Invalid): In the GDI, a value of 1 indicates absolute equality. Values below 1 typically indicate that women are lagging behind men.
IV (Valid): The PHDI accounts for environmental strain (intergenerational), while the IHDI accounts for current inequality among the living population (intragenerational).
V (Valid): The HDR 2021-22 highlights a "new uncertainty complex" driven by planetary changes, social shifts, and polarization.
86. Healthcare in Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (4) I, III and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): Telemedicine through the e-Sanjeevani platform is integrated into HWCs to link rural patients with district specialists.
II (Invalid): The Family Doctor Programme is strictly integrated with PHCs; doctors visit Village Health Clinics (VHCs) twice a month.
III (Valid): The scheme was revamped to be more inclusive, raising the eligibility threshold to ₹5 lakh to cover more families.
IV (Valid): Aarogya Aasara provides financial support (up to ₹225 per day or ₹5,000 per month) to patients during their recovery period after surgery.
87. Transport and Infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (3) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): The state’s first riverine project (Inland Waterway-4) specifically identified the stretch between Muktyala and Madipadu on the Krishna River for movement of limestone and cement.
II (Invalid): The Bhogapuram Airport is being developed by the GMR Group under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, not primarily through an NIIF corpus fund.
III (Invalid): AP invests heavily in community assets (schools, hospitals, village clinics) through programs like Nadu-Nedu, alongside strategic ports.
IV (Valid): The Setu Bandhan Scheme (under Central Road and Infrastructure Fund) is used to replace level crossings with Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) to improve safety and traffic flow.
88. AP Industrial Policy 2023 – 27
Answer: (2) I, II, III and V (Incorrect statements)
Explanation:
I (Incorrect): The policy target is to increase the industrial contribution to 30% of GSDP, not 25%.
II (Incorrect): The policy aims for a 21-day (3 weeks) window for approvals/facilitation, not 2 weeks.
III (Incorrect): The policy is built around three pillars (Proactive, Pro-business, and People-centric) and specific focus sectors, not a "ten priorities" framework.
IV (Correct): The policy emphasizes 'Plug and Play' infrastructure to reduce the gestation period for new industries.
V (Incorrect): Land allotment by APIIC follows a detailed procedure that generally exceeds a strict 2-week "guarantee" from initial application to final possession.
89. Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen & Green Ammonia Policy (2023)
Answer: (1) II and III
Explanation:
I (Invalid): The policy targets a production capacity of 0.5 MTPA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) of Green Hydrogen or 2.0 MTPA of Green Ammonia. The 1 MTPA figure for hydrogen is incorrect.
II (Valid): NREDCAP is designated as the Nodal Agency to facilitate and monitor the implementation of projects under this policy.
III (Valid): The policy leverages the state's extensive coastline; existing port infrastructure (for liquid nitrogen/chemicals) is being upgraded for the storage and export of Green Hydrogen/Ammonia.
IV (Invalid): The policy allows (rather than prohibits) developers to source renewable energy through "Third-Party" purchase or "Power Exchanges" to ensure flexibility in production.
90. Socio-Economic Status of Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (1) I and IV
Explanation:
I (Valid): Andhra Pradesh was indeed honored by the ICAR-NRCB for its excellence in banana production and significant contribution to the export of the fruit.
II (Invalid): In recent economic surveys, AP has consistently registered a higher GSDP growth rate compared to the national average, led by strong performance in the agriculture and industry sectors.
III (Invalid): By standard fiscal definition and budgeting, the Fiscal Deficit (total borrowing) is always a higher absolute value and percentage of GSDP than the Revenue Deficit (shortfall in day-to-day expenses).
IV (Valid): The state is using CORS (Continuously Operating Reference Stations) technology for the YSR Jagananna Saswatha Bhu Hakku Mariyu Bhu Raksha scheme to ensure high-precision digital mapping of land records.
Geography
91. Intrusive Landforms
Answer: (3) I, III and IV
Explanation:
I (Correct): Batholiths are the largest granitic intrusive bodies.
II (Incorrect): Phacoliths are lens-shaped masses found at the crest of anticlines or base of synclines. The "dome-shaped" description belongs to Lacoliths.
III (Correct): Dykes are vertical, wall-like structures.
IV (Correct): Sills are horizontal, sheet-like structures.
92. Composition of Earth's Crust
Answer: (1) Statement I only
Explanation:
I (Correct): All feldspars contain Silicon and Oxygen, plus specific metals like Al, Na, K, or Ca.
II (Incorrect): Feldspar alone makes up about half (50%) of the crust, and Quartz makes up 12%. Together they account for nearly two-thirds, not one-fourth.
93. Geomorphic Processes
Answer: (4) Orogeny is the continental building process.
Explanation:
Incorrect statement: Orogeny is the mountain-building process (involving folding). Epeirogeny is the continental-building process (involving uplift or subsidence).
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are geologically accurate.
94. Soil Formation Factors
Answer: (3) III and IV only
Explanation:
Active Factors: Climate and Biological activity (they act on the material to drive the process).
Passive Factors: Parent material, Topography, and Time (they provide the base or conditions but do not "act" themselves).
95. Answer: (2)
Short Explanation:
A. Cirrus (II): High-altitude clouds with a thin, silky or feathery appearance.
B. Cirrostratus (I): Transparent, thin clouds that create a milky look and cause halos around the sun/moon.
C. Cirrocumulus (IV): Appear as white, small globular masses (often called a "mackerel sky").
D. Cumulus (III): Dense, white clouds with a flat base and a typical cauliflower structure.
96. Wind Belts
Answer: (4) None of them
Short Explanation:
I (Incorrect): Doldrums (ITCZ) are characterized by calm, light winds and vertical air movement, not strong/rapid surface winds.
II (Incorrect): The trade winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow from the Northeast (Northeast Trades), not Northwest.
97. Extra-tropical Cyclones
Answer: (2) They do not have a clear frontal system.
Short Explanation:
Incorrect Statement: Extra-tropical (Mid-latitude) cyclones are entirely dependent on frontal systems (Cold and Warm fronts).
Note: It is the Tropical Cyclones that do not have a clear frontal system.
98. Mediterranean Climate
Answer: (2) I, II and IV (Not characteristics)
Short Explanation:
Mediterranean Feature: The unique characteristic is (3) Dry hot summer (and wet winters).
I, II, and IV are incorrect because this climate specifically has a dry summer (eliminating "no dry season"), a wet winter (eliminating "dry winter"), and mild temperatures (eliminating "very severe winter").
99. Guyot
Answer: (3) A flat topped seamount showing the evidence of gradual subsidence through stages.
Short Explanation:
A Guyot is essentially an underwater mountain with a flat top.
They were once volcanic islands that were eroded by waves at the sea surface and eventually sank (subsided) as the tectonic plate moved away from the hotspot.
100. Terrigenous Deposits
Answer: (3) I, III and IV
Short Explanation:
I (Correct): Terrigenous deposits originate from land (weathering/erosion) and settle mostly on continental shelves.
II (Incorrect): There is a gradual decrease in coarseness as you move away from the shore. Heavy gravel/sand stays near the coast, while fine silt/clay (mud) travels further.
III (Correct): Muds represent the finest fraction of land-derived sediments.
IV (Correct): Mud colors (Blue, Green, Red) result from chemical reactions involving iron, organic matter, or volcanic minerals.
101. Answer: (1) I, II and III
Short Explanation:
I (Correct): The East African Rift system has created a series of deep tectonic depressions that hold several large lakes.
II (Correct): While some smaller rift lakes are alkaline (soda lakes), the major "Great Lakes" of the rift (like Tanganyika and Malawi) are freshwater.
III (Correct): Lake Malawi (also known as Lake Nyasa) is indeed located at the southern end of the East African Rift system.
IV (Incorrect): Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa, but it is not part of the Rift Valley; it sits in a shallow depression between the two main branches of the rift.
102. South American Countries with Pacific Coastline
Answer: (3) I, III, IV and V
Short Explanation:
Pacific Coast (West): Chile, Peru, Ecuador, and Colombia all border the Pacific Ocean.
Venezuela (II): Located on the northern coast, it borders only the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. (Note: Colombia is the only South American country with both Pacific and Atlantic/Caribbean coasts).
103. Taiga Biome (Boreal Forest)
Answer: (3) Within this biome, there is a narrow range of temperatures between the winter and summer seasons.
Short Explanation:
Incorrect Statement: The Taiga is known for an extreme range of temperatures. Winters are long and exceptionally cold, while summers are short and can be quite warm.
Statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly describe its status as the largest biome, its location, and its precipitation patterns.
104. The Himalayas
Answer: (2) I, II and III
Short Explanation:
I (Correct): They are young fold mountains formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian and Eurasian plates.
II (Correct): The width varies from roughly 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.
III (Correct): The Great Himalayas are asymmetrical; their core consists of Archean rocks like granite.
IV (Incorrect): Duns (like Dehradun) are longitudinal valleys located between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks, not between the Greater and Lesser Himalayas.
106. Indian River Basins (Catchment Area)
Answer: (3) Indus > Godavari > Krishna > Brahmaputra
Short Explanation:
Within Indian territory, the catchment area sequence follows:
Ganga: ~8.6 lakh sq km
Indus: ~3.2 lakh sq km
Godavari: ~3.1 lakh sq km
Krishna: ~2.6 lakh sq km
Brahmaputra: ~1.9 lakh sq km (Note: While the Brahmaputra is a massive river, a smaller portion of its total basin lies within India compared to the Indus).
107. Peaty Soils
Answer: (3) the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity with good vegetation.
Short Explanation:
Peaty (or Marshy) soils form in regions with high moisture and stagnant water. The heavy rainfall and high humidity lead to the accumulation of a large amount of dead organic matter, which doesn't fully decompose, resulting in a rich, black, and highly acidic soil. These are found in parts of Kerala, Bihar, and coastal Odisha.
108. Shola Forests
Answer: (4) Temperate forests in the Anaimalai and Palani hills
Short Explanation:
Sholas are patches of stunted tropical montane temperate forests found in the valleys of the high-altitude grasslands of the Western Ghats (Nilgiris, Anaimalai, and Palani hills). They are unique ecosystems separated by rolling grasslands.
109. Dharwar Rocks in Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (4) The Chittoor and Nellore region
Short Explanation:
Dharwar rocks are among the oldest metamorphosed sedimentary rocks in India. In Andhra Pradesh, they are prominently found in the Nellore-Schist belt and parts of Chittoor, extending from the Dharwar craton. These rocks are economically significant as they often contain minerals like mica and gold.
110. Answer: (4)
Short Explanation:
A. Coringa (III): Famous for its mangrove ecosystem and the Saltwater Crocodile.
B. Gundla Brahmeswaram (IV): Located in the Nallamala hills, it is a significant habitat for the Tiger.
C. Rollapadu (I): A vital grassland sanctuary in Kurnool district specifically for the Great Indian Bustard.
D. Sri Lankamalleswara (II): The only place in the world where the rare and nocturnal bird, Jerdon's Courser, is found.
111. Answer: (2)
Short Explanation:
A. Pygmies (II): Short-statured hunter-gatherer groups traditionally inhabiting the tropical rainforests of the Congo Basin.
B. Masai (I): A Nilotic ethnic group of semi-nomadic people inhabiting northern, central, and southern Kenya and northern Tanzania in East Africa.
C. Semangs (IV): Negrito ethnolinguistic groups who are the nomadic hunter-gatherers of the Malay Peninsula in Malaysia.
D. Punan (III): Nomadic hunter-gatherers found in the central rainforests of Borneo (Kalimantan/Sarawak).
112. Answer: (2)
Short Explanation:
A. Ladang (II): This term for shifting cultivation is used in Indonesia and Malaysia.
B. Milpa (I): This is the traditional slash-and-burn method practiced in Central America and Mexico.
C. Roca (IV): This is the name used for shifting cultivation in Brazil.
D. Masole (III): This specific system is practiced in the Congo Basin of Central Africa.
113. Linguistic Diversity of India
Answer: (4) Dardi is a Sino-Tibetan language.
Short Explanation:
Incorrect Statement: Dardi (or Dardic) belongs to the Indo-Aryan (Indo-European) language family, primarily spoken in the Hindu Kush and Himalayan regions. It is not Sino-Tibetan.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are factually correct regarding census data and language family classifications.
114. Iron and Steel Industry Regions
Answer: (2) I, II and IV
Short Explanation:
I (Correct): The Atlantic Coast (e.g., Sparrows Point) is a key US steel hub.
II (Correct): The Ural region is the metallurgical heart of Russia.
III (Incorrect): The Ruhr region is in Germany (Western Europe), not Eastern Europe.
IV (Correct): These areas (like Sheffield and the Midlands) are traditional steel centers in the UK.
115. Trans-Siberian Railway
Answer: (3) St. Petersburg to Vladivostok
Short Explanation: The Trans-Siberian Railway is the longest railway line in the world. While Moscow is a major hub on the route, the full line officially connects St. Petersburg (in the west) to Vladivostok (on the Pacific coast in the east).
116. Groundwater Utilization in India
Answer: (3) I, III and IV
Short Explanation:
High Utilization: Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu have very high groundwater depletion levels due to intensive irrigation for agriculture (especially during the Green Revolution).
Odisha (II): Has a low to moderate level of groundwater utilization compared to the others, with significant untapped potential.
117. Wheat Crop Cultivation in India
Answer: (4) Black soil region of the Deccan is not suitable for wheat cultivation.
Short Explanation:
Incorrect Statement: The Black soil (Regur) of the Deccan trap is actually highly suitable for wheat cultivation because of its excellent moisture-retention capacity.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: Wheat is the #2 cereal, a Rabi crop, and thrives in the North-Western plains.
118. Oil Fields in Assam
Answer: (2) I, II and IV
Short Explanation:
Assam Fields: Digboi (India's oldest oil field), Moran-Hugrijan, and Naharkatiya are all located in the Brahmaputra valley of Assam.
Kalol (III): This oil field is located in Gujarat, near Ahmedabad.
119. Jute Mills Location
Answer: (3) Hugli basin
Short Explanation:
Most of India's jute mills are concentrated in a narrow belt along the Hugli River in West Bengal. This is due to the proximity of jute-growing areas, abundant water for processing (retting), and excellent transport connectivity via water, rail, and road to the port of Kolkata.
120. Coffee Plantations in Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (2) II and III only
Short Explanation:
Coffee cultivation in Andhra Pradesh is primarily concentrated in the high-altitude "agency" (tribal) areas of the Eastern Ghats.
Visakhapatnam (III): The Araku Valley is world-famous for its organic coffee.
East Godavari (II): The Chintapalli and Maredumilli agency areas are also major coffee-producing zones.
Srikakulam and West Godavari do not have significant coffee plantation areas compared to the Araku and Chintapalli belts.
142. Criteria for Acquiring Citizenship
Correct Answer: (4) Ethnic Identity
Explanation: Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, there are five ways to acquire Indian citizenship: Birth, Decent, Registration, Naturalization, and Incorporation of Territory. Ethnic Identity is not a legal criterion for citizenship.
143. Composition of the Constituent Assembly
Correct Answer: (3) Cabinet Mission
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India was formulated in 1946 based on the framework provided by the Cabinet Mission Plan. It rejected the idea of adult franchise and instead opted for indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
144. Violation of Fundamental Rights
Correct Answer: (2) Not paying minimum wages
Explanation: The Supreme Court has ruled that not paying minimum wages amounts to "forced labour," which is a violation of Article 23 (Right against Exploitation).
(1) and (4) are generally considered reasonable restrictions under Article 19, and (3) is a matter of national security/integrity.
145. First Use of VVPAT
Correct Answer: (1) By poll in Nagaland, 2013
Explanation: The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was first used in the Noksen Assembly constituency of Nagaland during a by-election in September 2013.
146. Pocket Veto Power
Correct Answer: (2) President keeping a bill pending with him, without any time limit
Explanation: In India, the President has no constitutional time limit to act on a bill sent for assent. By simply not taking any action (neither approving nor returning), the President can effectively "kill" the bill. This is known as a Pocket Vet
147. Electronic Delivery of Services
Correct Answer: (3) e-Kranti
Explanation: e-Kranti is a vital pillar of the Digital India initiative. Its mission is "Transforming e-Governance for Transforming Governance" by ensuring the electronic delivery of all government services to citizens.
148. Government e-Marketplace
Correct Answer: (3) GeM
Explanation: The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is the dedicated end-to-end online marketplace for the procurement of common-use goods and services required by various Government Departments, Organizations, and PSUs.
149. Pendency of Cases (April 2017)
Correct Answer: (3) 65%
Explanation: According to data from the National Judicial Data Grid around that period, a staggering number of cases were backlogged. While estimates vary slightly by month, 65% was the approximate figure cited for cases pending for more than two years in the lower and high courts combined.
150. Supreme Court Judgment and Article 142 :
Correct Answer: (4) Ban on licenses to liquor shops near State and National Highway
Explanation: In late 2016 (State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Balu), the Supreme Court invoked its extraordinary powers under Article 142 (to do "complete justice") to ban the sale of liquor within 500 meters of national and state highways to curb drunk driving and road accidents.
Paper 2 - 2023 PYQ’S
Question paper
Q1.If 808×8008×80008=A808×8008×80008=A and the sum of all the digits in A is M, what will be the value of ?
Options:
8
12
0
4
(Directions for questions 2 – 3)
There are two series given below, of which one is complete and follows a certain pattern. Based on the pattern of the complete series, find the answering term in the other series with missing terms marked by alphabets.
Q2. Which number will come in place of D in the following series sequence?
| 4 | 25 | 169 | 1009 | 5041 | 20161 |
| 6 | A | B | C | D | E |
Options:
7827
8394
8401
8514
Q3. Which number will come in place of E in the following sequence?
| 4 | 7.5 | 21.25 | 77.875 | 354.9375 | 1957.65625 |
| 5 | A | B | C | D | E |
Options:
2184.2
2114.5
2282.5
2419.4
Q4. Amit has to travel distances of 66 km, 88 km and 110 km on three consecutive days. He travels with the greatest possible constant speed (in km/hr) on all the three days so that he covers the respective distances in an integer number of hours on each day. How many hours will it take him to complete the journey?
Options:
(1) 8 hours
(2) 12 hours
(3) 22 hours
(4) 24 hours
Q5. If pKq means p + q, pLq means p - q, pMq means p % q, pNq means p × q, which of the following equation is incorrect?
(1) 5K3L4M6N2 = -4
(2) (8M7)M(7K5)L(6N3)N(3L2) = 670
(3) 5K6L3M4N8 = 9-5
(4) 30N10K4M2L2 = 15
(2) (8M7)M(7K5)L(6N3)N(3L2) = 670
(3) 5K6L3M4N8 = 9-5
(4) 30N10K4M2L2 = 15
Q6. A pipe 'N' can fill a tank in 1/4 hour and another pipe 'M' can fill it in 1/6 hour. Both pipes are opened to fill the empty tank, but after 1/15 hour a leak developed in the tank. The leak alone can empty the full tank in just 1/12 hour. If both pipes were opened at 9 pm, then at what time will the tank be emptied? (DELETED)
Options:
(1) 9:20 pm
(2) 9:30 pm
(3) 9:25 pm
(4) 9:40 pm
Q7. Rajani has a digital watch that shows time in a 24-hour format. The time on the watch shows 23:45. After passing 'A' minutes the watch shows the time in such a way that the four whole numbers are again arranged in ascending order from left to right. Then what will be the value of A × A?
Options:
(1) 7569
(2) 8464
(3) 6724
(4) 9604
Q8. If E * F means 'E is the son of F', E + F means 'E is the father of F', E > F means 'E is the daughter of F', E < F means 'E is the wife of F', which of the following pair of people represents first cousins with regard to the relation given in the expressions, if it is provided that H is the sister of P?
Q > R < P + S and M * H < I + J < K + L
Q > R < P + S and M * H < I + J < K + L
Options:
(1) QH
(2) MS
(3) ML
(4) MK
Q9. In a hostel room, five people P, Q, R, S and T read a novel. The one who reads the novel first gives it to R. The one who reads the novel last has taken it from P. T is not the first or the last to read the novel. There are two readers between Q and P. Identify those two readers between Q and P in the same order.
Options:
(1) R and S
(2) R and T
(3) T and S
(4) S and T
Q10. Consider the following statements:
I. An equilateral triangle in a circle will have the maximum area compared to other triangles inside the same circle.
II. If the height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm, its area will be equal to 100√3/3 cm².
III. If three sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 cm, then the circumradius of the triangle is 2.5 cm.
IV. Scalene triangle is a triangle with none of the sides equal to any other sides.
Which among the above given statements are correct?
I. An equilateral triangle in a circle will have the maximum area compared to other triangles inside the same circle.
II. If the height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm, its area will be equal to 100√3/3 cm².
III. If three sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 cm, then the circumradius of the triangle is 2.5 cm.
IV. Scalene triangle is a triangle with none of the sides equal to any other sides.
Which among the above given statements are correct?
Options:
(1) I, II and III only
(2) I, II and IV only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) All the above
Q11. The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers, which on being divided by 5, leave a remainder equal to 4 is XXYZA. What is the value of Y + Z?
Options:
(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 14
(4) 18
(Directions for questions 12 – 15)
Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nandu and Mohan decided to sell their Apple 6 Series watches each at ₹ 42,000 to Karthik and Ganesh respectively. In each case the selling price of ₹ 42,000 was arrived at by increasing the cost price by 25%. While Nandu gives a discount of 10% on the first ₹ 12,000, 8% on the next ₹ 16,000 and 5% on the rest to the buyer Karthik, Mohan gives a discount of 8% on the first ₹ 16,000, 7% on the next ₹ 8,000 and 5% on the rest to his buyer Ganesh. These discounts were however subject to the condition, that the buyers make the payment on time, failing which the discount gets reduced by 1% for every delay of a week.
Q12. If Nandu and Mohan got all the payments on time, what is the approximate percentage of profit of the person getting the higher profit ?
Options:
(1) 14%
(2) 21%
(3) 17%
(4) 9%
Q13. If Karthik defaults to make payment by 1 and 2 weeks in the second and third payments respectively, what would be the profit of Nandu on the sale of a watch?
Options:
(1) ₹5,480
(2) ₹5,545
(3) ₹5,660
(4) ₹5,740
Q14. If Ganesh defaults in each payment by 2 weeks, what would be the profit of Mohan on the sale of a watch?
Options: (1) ₹ 5,400 (2) ₹ 6,200 (3) ₹ 6,500 (4) ₹ 6,800
Q15. What would be the difference in the profits of Nandu and Mohan if both the buyers default in each payment by a week?
Options:
(1) ₹ 440
(2) ₹ 464
(3) ₹ 488
(4) ₹ 520
Q16. Madhu purchased a bike in the year 2024 at the cost of ₹ 78,000. It depreciates in value, 10% the first year, 9.5% the next year, 9% the third year and so on, with all the percentages applied on the original cost of the bike. What will be its value in the year 2029?
Options:
(1) ₹ 43,000
(2) ₹ 42,000
(3) ₹ 42,500
(4) ₹ 42,900
Q17. Neelima places an order for 'p' number of sweets from Agarwal Sweet Shop that produces 'q' number of sweets every day. 'r%' of the total number of sweets produced in a day fail quality check and are discarded. What will be the number of days in which the order will be completed?
Options:
(1) p/(100q(1-r) )
(2) (100qr)/p
(3) 100p/(100-r)q
(4)100r/ q(100-p)
Q18. There are 5 members in the family by the names Ravi, Madhu, Mahesh, Raghu and Praveen. Praveen is taller than Raghu but not as fat as Raghu. Mahesh is taller than Ravi but shorter than Madhu. Ravi is fatter than Raghu but not as fat as Madhu. Praveen is thinner than Mahesh, who is thinner than Raghu. If they are arranged in an ascending order, i.e., fattest to thinnest, who will come in the middle?
Options:
(1) Praveen
(2) Raghu
(3) Mahesh
(4) Madhu
(Directions for Questions 19 – 21)
On the eve of Bathukamma festival, the association of Greenfield Apartments had organized games for children. As a part of that, Keerthi, Joshna, Pallavi, Rama and Swetha participated in a race. They got different ranks from 1 to 5 in the race (1 being the fastest and 5 being the slowest). The following information is also known:
I. Keerthi is not the person who finished the race first.
II. Pallavi didn't get the 5th rank, but she finished the race after Keerthi.
III. Rama finished the race after Joshna.
IV. The sum of ranks of Keerthi and Swetha was equal to the sum of ranks of Pallavi and Rama.
Q19. Among the five girls that participated in the race, who was the last to finish the race?
Options:
(1) Swetha
(2) Pallavi
(3) Keerthi
(4) Rama
Q20. If the sum of the ranks of Swetha and Pallavi is 8, then who got the 4th rank?
Options:
(1) Keerthi
(2) Rama
(3) Pallavi
(4) Swetha
Q21. Among the five girls, who could not have finished the race after Pallavi?
Options:
(1) Keerthi
(2) Rama
(3) Swetha
(4) Cannot be determined
Q22. The ratio of Pooja's age to Ajay's age is 1 : 3. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be 1 : 2. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 1 : 5?
Options:
(1) 3 years
(2) 4 years
(3) 5 years
(4) 6 years
Q23. Bhaskar bought a piggy bank for his daughter Kavitha. Kavitha started saving her money. On 1st March, 2024 she saved ₹ 1 and every day starting from 2nd March she saved ₹ 1 more than the previous day. Find the first date after 1st March, 2024 at the end of which her total savings will be a perfect square.
Options:
(1) 10th March, 2024
(2) 26th March, 2024
(3) 17th March, 2024
(4) 8th March, 2024
Q24. Jaya, a shopkeeper, initially had 'n' pens. A customer bought 10% pens from n, then another customer bought 20% of the remaining pens, after that one more customer purchased 25% of the remaining pens. Finally, Jaya was left with 270 pens in her shop. How many pens were there initially in her shop?
Options:
(1) 600
(2) 450
(3) 700
(4) 500
Q25. A preliminary test was conducted by a recruiting agency which consisted of 100 questions. Madhuri takes that test and attempts all the questions in it. For every correct answer 1 mark is awarded, while a wrong answer is penalized as follows:
I. One-fifth of the questions carry 1/10 negative marking.
II. One-tenth of the questions carry 1/5 negative marking.
III. Remaining questions will carry 1/2 negative marking.
Unattempted questions carry 0 marks. If maximum and minimum possible marks scored by Madhuri are X and Y respectively, then (X – Y)/17.375 is:
I. One-fifth of the questions carry 1/10 negative marking.
II. One-tenth of the questions carry 1/5 negative marking.
III. Remaining questions will carry 1/2 negative marking.
Unattempted questions carry 0 marks. If maximum and minimum possible marks scored by Madhuri are X and Y respectively, then (X – Y)/17.375 is:
Options:
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 8
Q26. In a classroom, a teacher asked, "How many 2-digit numbers exist which have the property that the product of factorials of its digits > the sum of factorials of its digits?" Then what will be the answer of the students present there?
Options:
(1) 56
(2) 63
(3) 64
(4) 72
Q27. Krishna, Suresh and Raghava together started a business with the initial investments of ₹ 15,000, ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 20,000 respectively. After a year, Krishna and Suresh increased their investments by ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 2,000 respectively, while Raghava withdrew ₹ 5,000. After one more year, Krishna, Suresh and Raghava increased their investments by 20%, 25% and 40% respectively. It was decided that Raghava would receive 20% of the total profit received by them for his extra work and the rest of the profit would be distributed according to their investments. After 3 years, the total profit received by them was ₹ 53,400. If the extra profit received by Raghava was excluded, then find the ratio of profit shares of Krishna, Suresh and Raghava:
Options:
(1) 56:63:53
(2) 53:63:56
(3) 59:63:56
(4) 69:63:56
Q28. John has a piggy bank which contains 25-paise, 50-paise and 1-rupee coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the piggy bank is ₹ 160. If there are three times as many 1-rupee coins as there are 25-paise coins, then what is the number of 50-paise coins in the piggy bank?
Options:
(1) 45
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80
Q29. Sekhar delivered a 20 litre solution of milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2 to Bhaskar. Bhaskar removed 10 litres from this, replaced it with pure milk and delivered it to Karthik and Karthik repeated this process and delivered it to Varun. What is the ratio of milk and water in the solution received by Varun?
Options:
(1) 3:2
(2) 4:1
(3) 7:3
(4) 9:1
Q30. In a new year party, out of the total guests, 60% are women. If 80% of the guests are married couples (form a pair of husband and wife) and the rest are unmarried, then which of the following statements are correct?
I. All men are married.
II. More than 30% of women are unmarried.
I. All men are married.
II. More than 30% of women are unmarried.
Options:
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II
Q31. In a kitchen rack, six boxes are kept one on top of another. The red box is just above the blue box. The purple box is between the black and the green box. The yellow box is between the red and the black box. If the boxes are numbered from 1 to 6 from top to bottom, then the difference between the position of the green and the red box is D. What is the value of D³/2?
Options:
(1) 4
(2) 13.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 32
Q32. Pointing at a boy in the photograph Bhargav said, "The boy sitting on the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother." What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Bhargav?
Options:
(1) Brothers
(2) Nephew and uncle
(3) Both are first cousins
(4) Father's brother
Q33. Consider the following statements:
I. A Parallelogram having all the sides equal is a Rhombus.
II. All the Rhombuses are Parallelograms, but the reverse is not true.
III. A Rhombus may or may not be a Square, but all Squares are Rhombuses.
Which among the above given statements are correct?
I. A Parallelogram having all the sides equal is a Rhombus.
II. All the Rhombuses are Parallelograms, but the reverse is not true.
III. A Rhombus may or may not be a Square, but all Squares are Rhombuses.
Which among the above given statements are correct?
Options:
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) All the above
Q34. An electrical lineman has to climb on a pole of height 50 meters to fix the wires. In the first one minute he climbed up 5 meters, in the next one minute he slipped down by 2 meters. Further, he repeated the same process till he reached the top of the pole. Then at what height was he at the 24th minute and how many times did he have to go upwards to reach the top of the pole?
Options:
(1) 41 meters, 12
(2) 39 meters, 11
(3) 36 meters, 16
(4) 42 meters, 18
Q35. Sandeep invested a certain amount in Reliance Infra Private Limited which offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 5% p.a. and an amount equal to 50% of that amount was invested in Reliance Jio, which offers compound interest (compounded annually) at 10% p.a. The duration of investment for both the companies was 2 years. If the difference between the amount received from both the companies is ₹ 6,965, what is the difference between the sums invested in the two companies?
Options:
(1) ₹ 7,000
(2) ₹ 8,400
(3) ₹ 7,900
(4) ₹ 6,600
Q36. Kalpana's project report consists of 40 pages, each of 75 lines with 80 characters in each line. The lines are reduced to 70, but the number of characters is increased to 95 per line. What is the approximate change in the number of pages?
Options:
(1) -7.5%
(2) -10%
(3) -12%
(4) -14%
Q37. A, B and C are hired for a painting job. Working together, A and B can do a job in 12 days, B and C can do the same job in 8 days, while A and C can do it in 16 days. Then how long will it take, if all of them work together to complete the job?
Options:
(1) 3⅚ days
(2) 7¹³/₇ days
(3) 3⁷/₁₂ days
(4) 7⁵/₁₃ days
Q38. The letters of the word 'ENTRANCE' are arranged in such a way that all vowels are always written together. How many such ways of writing the word is possible?
Options:
(1) 1080
(2) 1440
(3) 1384
(4) 1526
Q39. If 12th June, 2024 will be a Wednesday, then what day of week will it be on 19th November, 2024?
Options:
(1) Wednesday
(2) Monday
(3) Thursday
(4) Tuesday
Q40. Umesh is standing in a bus stand facing the North-west direction. He turns 135° anti-clockwise. After that he turns 45° anti-clockwise. He finally turns 90° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
Options:
(1) North-west
(2) South-west
(3) North-east
(4) South-east
Q41. If 8.92 × 4.15 × 7.69 × ? = 1565.67631, what will come in the place of "?"
Options:
(1) 6.18
(2) 4.96
(3) 4.84
(4) 5.5
Q42. Pawan appeared for examination in 5 subjects. The maximum marks are the same for each subject. His marks in these 5 subjects are in the proportion 4 : 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 and overall he scored 60%. In how many subjects did he score less than 50% of the maximum marks?
Options:
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Q43. It takes Madhu 2t minutes to complete Form-A which has k questions and 3t minutes to complete Form-B which has k/2 questions. If Madhu answers all the questions, how much more time does he take on an average to answer a Form-B question than he takes to answer a Form-A question?
Options:
(1) 2tk
(2) 8t/k
(3) 4t/k
(4) t/k
Q44. A professor of pharmaceutical sciences in his classroom defines that the 'half-life of a drug substance is the time period in which the drug substance becomes just half of it'. If it is known that the half-life of a drug Adrenaline is 800 years, then after 3200 years, 1200 gm of Adrenaline becomes X. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of all digits in X?
Options:
(1) 12
(2) 28.5
(3) 22.5
(4) 37.5
Q45. Chandra is a confused typist. While typing the numbers from 600 to 799 (both included), he typed 8 wherever he was supposed to type 6. Then the total number of times he had typed 8 is:
Options:
(1) 180
(2) 230
(3) 320
(4) 300
Q46. Find the incorrect term in the given series:
193 140 97 62 35 16 5
193 140 97 62 35 16 5
Options:
(1) 62
(2) 97
(3) 140
(4) 193
Q47. Ganesh donated 50% of his saving of ₹ 1,26,588 to Ayodhya Trust and he invested the rest of the amount at 10% compound interest per annum, separately for his children Krishna and Veda in such a way that when they attain the age of 18 years, they would receive the same amount. The age of Krishna is 13 years and that of Veda is 11 years. Then the amount invested for Veda must be:
Options:
(1) ₹ 28,204
(2) ₹ 28,640
(3) ₹ 26,840
(4) ₹ 28,460
Q48. Find the Mean of the following data (correct to two decimal places):
| Variables | Frequency |
| 15 - 25 | 4 |
| 25 - 35 | 11 |
| 35 - 45 | 19 |
| 45 - 55 | 14 |
| 55 - 65 | 0 |
| 65 - 75 | 2 |
Options:
(1) 39.26 (2) 40.26
(3) 41.56 (4) 42.65
Q49. Find the number of triangles in the following figure:
Options:
(1) 36
(2) 32
(3) 48
(4) 52
Q50. Each of seven boys named A, B, C, D, E, F and G has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Sunday and ending on Saturday of the same week. Only two persons have their exam between C and A. B has his exam immediately before E. C has his exam immediately before F. Only G has his exam after A. Which of the following options represents the correct match of a boy and the day of his exam?
Options:
(1) A: Thursday
(2) G: Friday
(3) C: Tuesday
(4) B: Monday
Science & General Knowledge Questions
Q51. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A): A person with AB+ve blood group is called as 'Universal Recipient'.
Reason (R): A person with AB+ve blood group has A & B antigens and Antibodies in Plasma.
Assertion (A): A person with AB+ve blood group is called as 'Universal Recipient'.
Reason (R): A person with AB+ve blood group has A & B antigens and Antibodies in Plasma.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Q52. Choose the correct suitable figure among the four alternatives A, B, C and D given below that would complete the given figure matrix.
Options:
(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) None of the above figures can complete the matrix
Q53. Vande Bharat Express travelling at 63 kmph can cross a platform of Visakhapatnam railway station which is 199.5 m long in 21 seconds. How much time would Vande Bharat Express take to completely cross (from the moment they meet) Duronto Express 157 m long and travelling at 54 kmph in the opposite direction to it?
Options:
(1) 8 seconds
(2) 10 seconds
(3) 12 seconds
(4) 16 seconds
Q54. Study the provided bar chart showing the number of students who appeared for and passed the B.Tech. examination from different IITs in 2024
Question: The number of students who passed the examination from IIT Kanpur and IIT Pune is what percentage of the average number of the students who appeared for the examination from IIT Madras, IIT Tirupati, and IIT Bombay respectively (p. 23)?
Options:
(1) 60% and 85%
(2) 64% and 90%
(3) 65% and 75%
(4) 62% and 90%
Q55. Read the below given statements followed by conclusions. Choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements (p. 23):
Statements:
All professors are doctors.
All doctors are engineers.
Some professors are lawyers.
Conclusions: I. All professors are engineers. II. All engineers are lawyers. III. Some doctors are lawyers.
Options:
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusions I and III follow
(3) Only conclusions I and II follow
(4) Only conclusions II and III follow
Q56. Assume that you are the polling officer of a polling station for the general elections 2024 and the polling booth is in an area where Maoist prevalence is high. During the day of polling a group of Maoists come and try to disrupt proceedings by terrorizing the voters and firing guns. What will you do?
Options:
(1) Immediately stop the polling and inform your higher authorities about the incident.
(2) Ask the police to resist the Maoists by getting additional force.
(3) Inform the police force stationed there and ask them to ensure safety of important documents and EVMs.
(4) Ask your subordinates and voters to revolt against the Maoists.
(2) Ask the police to resist the Maoists by getting additional force.
(3) Inform the police force stationed there and ask them to ensure safety of important documents and EVMs.
(4) Ask your subordinates and voters to revolt against the Maoists.
Q57. If a circle touching all the n sides of a polygon of perimeter 2p has radius r, then the area of the polygon is:
Options:
(1) p+n/2r
(2) (p-n)r
(3) (2p-n)r
(4) pr
Q58. In a recreation club, Sam, Gautham, Nagesh, Deepak and Anup were playing cards. Sam says to Gautham, "If you give me three cards, you will have as many as Anup has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as Deepak has." Sam and Gautham together have 10 cards more than what Deepak and Anup together have. If Gautham has two cards more than what Nagesh has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does Gautham have?
Options:
(1) 35
(2) 45
(3) 20
(4) 25
Q59. Find out the alternative figure from P, Q, R, and S which contains figure A as its part (Note: This question was officially marked as Question Deleted during evaluation)
Q60. In a certain code language, Bihar is coded as Uttar Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh is coded as Punjab, Punjab is coded as Assam, Assam is coded as Goa, Goa is coded as Bangalore and Bangalore is coded as Sikkim. Then in which state was an AIIMS inaugurated recently by the Prime Minister of India?
Options:
(1) Goa
(2) Assam
(3) Punjab
(4) Bihar
Q61. Consider the following statements about Seed Vaults:
I. Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote Norwegian Spitsbergen Island, and it is the world's largest secure seed storage vault.
II. India's Seed Vault is located in a high-altitude mountain pass on the Chang La in Ladakh.
III. Indian Seed Vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
I. Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote Norwegian Spitsbergen Island, and it is the world's largest secure seed storage vault.
II. India's Seed Vault is located in a high-altitude mountain pass on the Chang La in Ladakh.
III. Indian Seed Vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II only
(4) None of the above
Q62. Identify the new sites in India added to the list of Ramsar sites on the eve of World Wetland Day 2024:
I. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
II. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
III. Pichvaram Mangrove
IV. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve
V. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary
I. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
II. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
III. Pichvaram Mangrove
IV. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve
V. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary
Options:
(1) I and III only
(2) II and IV only
(3) I and IV only
(4) I and V only
Q63. Consider the following statements about 'Women Engineered SATellite' (WESAT):
I. WESAT is the first Indian satellite to be fully designed and developed by women students of Lal Bahadur Shastri Institute of Technology for Women, Kerala.
II. WESAT was launched aboard the PSLV-C58/XPoSAT Mission as one of the secondary payloads on 1st January, 2024.
III. WESAT is meant to study how rainfall refills underground water in rural areas of India.
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
All the above
Q64. Which among the following is the world's first country to propose a tax for agricultural emissions to achieve the emission reduction target by 2050?
Options:
New Zealand
Mexico
Brazil
Argentina
Q65. Consider the following statements about Garbhini-GA2:
I. It is the first India-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model which accurately determines the age of a fetus in pregnant women in the second and third trimesters.
II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by the researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
I only
II only
Both I and II
None of the above
Q66. Identify India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy for which Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) granted market approval:
Options:
NexCAR19
TECARTUS
IND YESCARTA
BREYANZI-BH
Q67. Consider the following statements about the indigenous Green propulsion system that was successfully demonstrated in space on ISRO's PSLV-C58 mission:
I. It was developed by Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited under the Technology Development Fund scheme of DRDO.
II. Green propulsion system is an innovative technology which is a non-toxic and environmentally-friendly propulsion system for low orbit space.
III. Green propulsion system is ideal for space missions with high thrust requirement.
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
All the above
Q68. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) for innovation and research in the renewable energy sector with:
Options:
IIT Madras
IIT Guwahati
IIT Bhubaneswar
IIT Bombay
Q69. Consider the following statements:
I. India retained the 40th position in Global Innovation Index among the top innovative economies globally as per Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023.
II. As per WIPO Report 2022, India is ranked at 7th position in terms of Resident Patent Filing activity in the world.
III. India improved its ranking to 60th position in 2023 from 79th position in 2019 as per Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2023 Report.
IV. India secured 42nd position out of the 55 countries in the Global Intellectual Property Index 2024 as per the 12th edition of International Intellectual Property Index.
Which among the above statements are incorrect?
I. India retained the 40th position in Global Innovation Index among the top innovative economies globally as per Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023.
II. As per WIPO Report 2022, India is ranked at 7th position in terms of Resident Patent Filing activity in the world.
III. India improved its ranking to 60th position in 2023 from 79th position in 2019 as per Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2023 Report.
IV. India secured 42nd position out of the 55 countries in the Global Intellectual Property Index 2024 as per the 12th edition of International Intellectual Property Index.
Which among the above statements are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I, II and IV
(2) II, III and IV
(3) II and IV only
(4) None of the above
Q70. India's indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) of 500 MWe capacity at Kalapakkam was developed by:
Options:
(1) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
(2) Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR)
(3) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)
(4) Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI)
(2) Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR)
(3) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)
(4) Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI)
Q71. Among the following, identify the lead institutions which are in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory as a part of LIGO-India project:
I. Institute for Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar
II. Kepler's Observatory & Research Centre, Haryana
III. Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune
IV. Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore
V. Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram
I. Institute for Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar
II. Kepler's Observatory & Research Centre, Haryana
III. Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune
IV. Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore
V. Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram
Options:
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and V
(3) I, III and IV
(4) II, III and IV
Q72. Identify the spacecraft deployed by the NASA to study the physical changes in 'God of Chaos' asteroid which will be nearing the Earth's orbit by 2029:
Options:
(1) OSIRIS-APEX
(2) New Shepard
(3) Voshkod
(4) Pioneer 13
Q73. Who among the following is the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science discipline?
Options:
(1) Kamala Sohonie
(2) Anandibai Joshee
(3) Janaki Ammal
(4) Maharani Chakravorty
Q74 The smart, biodegradable, natural polymer-based nanoparticles from renewable resources for treating colorectal cancer were developed by researchers of:
Options:
Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi
Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay
Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Tirupati
Q75. Consider the following statements regarding Sun Halo:
I. Sun Halo is an optical phenomenon that occurs due to sunlight refracting in millions of hexagonal ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere.
II. Sun Halo takes the form of a ring with a radius of approximately 22 degrees around the Sun.
III. Sun Halo is specifically produced by cumulonimbus clouds, which are thin, detached hair-like clouds.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
I and II only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
Q76. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Coral reefs are often called the 'Rainforests of the Sea'.
Statement II: Coral reefs break the power of the waves during storms and hurricanes, thus preventing coastal erosion.
Statement I: Coral reefs are often called the 'Rainforests of the Sea'.
Statement II: Coral reefs break the power of the waves during storms and hurricanes, thus preventing coastal erosion.
Options:
(1) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Q77. Consider the following statements regarding 30 by 30 initiative:
I. 30 by 30 is a global initiative for governments for ensuring that at least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030 to achieve Net Zero target.
II. 30 by 30 initiative was launched by High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People.
III. India is the first among the BRICS countries to join the High Ambition Coalition (HAC).
Which among the above statements are correct?
I. 30 by 30 is a global initiative for governments for ensuring that at least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030 to achieve Net Zero target.
II. 30 by 30 initiative was launched by High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People.
III. India is the first among the BRICS countries to join the High Ambition Coalition (HAC).
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) All the above
Q78. Identify the Biosphere Reserves in India, which are not a part of Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO:
I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
II. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
III. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
IV. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
V. Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve
I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
II. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
III. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
IV. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
V. Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve
Options:
(1) I, II and IV
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, IV and V
(4) II, IV and V
Q79. Which of the following state's online civic tax payment software suffered a cyber-attack recently?
Options:
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Odisha
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
Q80. Which of the following programme by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to encourage and support senior women scientists to conduct research in interdisciplinary areas of science and technology?
Options:
(1) INSPIRE-SHE
(2) GATI
(3) SERB-POWER
(4) WIDUSHI
Q81. Consider the following statements about ARTSENS device:
I. It is a novel, non-invasive device to assess the health and age of the neurons and thereby provide early screening for central nervous system diseases.
II. ARTSENS device was developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS).
III. ARTSENS device is powered by a proprietary non-imaging probe and an intelligent computing platform.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
I. It is a novel, non-invasive device to assess the health and age of the neurons and thereby provide early screening for central nervous system diseases.
II. ARTSENS device was developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences (NIMHANS).
III. ARTSENS device is powered by a proprietary non-imaging probe and an intelligent computing platform.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) II only
Q82. A multimodal AI tool that can respond in 11 Indian languages developed indigenously by BharatGPT ecosystem and Seetha Mahalakshmi Healthcare (SML) is:
Options:
(1) Krutrim
(2) Bhashini
(3) OpenHathi
(4) Hanooman
Q83 NITI Aayog's Methanol Economy programme is aimed at:
I. Reducing India's oil import bill.
II. Reducing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emission.
III. Converting coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol.
II. Reducing Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emission.
III. Converting coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II and III
Q84 Which among the following acts as a nodal agency for sourcing of the Aarogya Maitri Cubes developed indigenously under Project BHISHM?
Options:
HLL Lifecare Limited
Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited
Emergent Medi-Tech India Pvt Limited
Biosurge Healthcare India Pvt Limited
Q85. Consider the following statements about Garbhini-GA2:
I. It is the first India-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model which accurately determines the age of a fetus in pregnant women in the second and third trimesters.
II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by the researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
I. It is the first India-specific Artificial Intelligence (AI) model which accurately determines the age of a fetus in pregnant women in the second and third trimesters.
II. Garbhini-GA2 was developed by the researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras and Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of the above
Q86. Identify India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy for which Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) granted market approval:
Options:
(1) NexCAR19
(2) TECARTUS
(3) IND YESCARTA
(4) BREYANZI-BH
Q87. Consider the following statements regarding Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative:
I. Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative was launched at COP27 and it is a collaboration between the Vulnerable Twenty (V20) group, the Group of Seven (G7) and other supporting countries.
II. The Global Shield will increase protection for vulnerable people and countries by substantially enhancing Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance (CDRFI).
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
I. Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative was launched at COP27 and it is a collaboration between the Vulnerable Twenty (V20) group, the Group of Seven (G7) and other supporting countries.
II. The Global Shield will increase protection for vulnerable people and countries by substantially enhancing Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance (CDRFI).
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of the above
Q88. Which among the following in India have been named as 'Hope Spot' by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue?
Options:
(1) Lakshadweep Islands and Raghopur Diyara Island
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Keibul Lamjao Island
(3) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Diu Island
(4) Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Keibul Lamjao Island
(3) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Diu Island
(4) Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Q89 Consider the following statements regarding GSAT-N2:
I. It is the first demand-driven satellite mission that is fully funded and owned by New Space India Limited (NSIL).
II. GSAT-N2 satellite will be lifted by using SpaceX's Falcon-9 rocket and is scheduled in the 2nd quarter of 2025.
III. The collaboration of NSIL with SpaceX was made due to the current limitation of India's rockets, which are lacking in the capacity to lift large communication satellites.
Which among the above given statements are correct?
Options:
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III
Q90. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India has tremendous Solar power generation potential.
Statement II: India experiences clear sunny weather for 250 to 300 days per year and this exposure to the Sun is estimated to be worth 5000 Tn kilowatt hour of energy in a year over India's land area.
Statement I: India has tremendous Solar power generation potential.
Statement II: India experiences clear sunny weather for 250 to 300 days per year and this exposure to the Sun is estimated to be worth 5000 Tn kilowatt hour of energy in a year over India's land area.
Options:
(1) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Part B (ii): Current Events of Regional, National and International Importance
Q91. Which of the following became the world's first country to make abortion a constitutional right?
Options:
(1) Netherlands
(2) France
(3) Australia
(4) Switzerland
Q92. Consider the following statements regarding 'Operation Aspides' which was recently seen in the news:
I. It is a defensive maritime security operation to restore and safeguard freedom of navigation in the Red Sea and the Gulf.
II. Operation Aspides is a joint operation by Interpol and International Maritime Organization and was launched on 19th February, 2024.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
I. It is a defensive maritime security operation to restore and safeguard freedom of navigation in the Red Sea and the Gulf.
II. Operation Aspides is a joint operation by Interpol and International Maritime Organization and was launched on 19th February, 2024.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of the above
Q93 Consider the following statements regarding DOSTI drill:
I. DOSTI-16 is a trilateral coast guard exercise between India, Sri Lanka and Maldives conducted from 22 to 25 February, 2024.
II. The DOSTI drill was started in 1991 as a bilateral exercise by the coast guards of India and Sri Lanka.
III. Indian Coast Guard Ship Samarth and ICGS Abhinav participated in the Exercise DOSTI-16.
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III
Q94 'Oncology.ai', an Artificial Intelligence (AI) platform designed for the early detection of breast and ovarian cancer, was launched by:
Options:
All India Institute of Medical Sciences in collaboration with Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR).
Dr. B. Borooah Cancer Institute in collaboration with Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB).
National Institute of Cancer Prevention and Research in collaboration with Artificial Intelligence Research Institute (AIIRI).
All India Institute of Medical Sciences in collaboration with Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC).
Q95. Consider the following statements regarding 'CRIIIO 4 GOOD':
I. CRIIIO 4 GOOD is a series of 8 cricket-based animation films.
II. CRIIIO 4 GOOD consists of new online, life skill learning modules to promote gender equality among girls and boys.
III. CRIIIO 4 GOOD was launched by International Cricket Council, UNICEF and Board of Control for Cricket in India.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
I. CRIIIO 4 GOOD is a series of 8 cricket-based animation films.
II. CRIIIO 4 GOOD consists of new online, life skill learning modules to promote gender equality among girls and boys.
III. CRIIIO 4 GOOD was launched by International Cricket Council, UNICEF and Board of Control for Cricket in India.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I and II
(2) III only
(3) I and III
(4) None of the above
Q96. Which among the following country's Prime Minister became the first Pacific leader to address Australia's Parliament?
Options:
(1) Philippines
(2) Marshall Islands
(3) Fiji
(4) Papua New Guinea
Q97. Consider the following statements regarding PACE satellite:
I. It is NASA's satellite mission to study ocean health, air quality and effects of climate change.
II. PACE satellite was successfully launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon-9 rocket on 8th February, 2024.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
I. It is NASA's satellite mission to study ocean health, air quality and effects of climate change.
II. PACE satellite was successfully launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon-9 rocket on 8th February, 2024.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
Options:
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of the above
Q98. Consider the following statements:
I. The 1st edition of the Indian Naval Commanders' Conference of 2024 commenced on March 5th, 2024.
II. The Government of India launched ADITI scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technology.
III. Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
Which among the above statements are correct?
I. The 1st edition of the Indian Naval Commanders' Conference of 2024 commenced on March 5th, 2024.
II. The Government of India launched ADITI scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technology.
III. Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III
Q99. India's first indigenous Hydrogen fuel cell ferry, flagged off by the Prime Minister of India, was built by:
Options:
Hindustan Shipyard Limited
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
Hooghly Dock & Port Engineers Limited
Cochin Shipyard Limited
Q100. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The researchers from various organizations have identified a new species of burrowing frog in the urban landscape of Karnataka and named it as 'Sphaerotheca Varshaabhuv'.
Statement II: Sphaerotheca Varshaabhuv get its name from its behaviour of changing colours from brown to pale brown in the beginning of monsoon season.
Statement I: The researchers from various organizations have identified a new species of burrowing frog in the urban landscape of Karnataka and named it as 'Sphaerotheca Varshaabhuv'.
Statement II: Sphaerotheca Varshaabhuv get its name from its behaviour of changing colours from brown to pale brown in the beginning of monsoon season.
Options:
(1) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Q101. The initiative 'Mission Investigation@75 days', which mandates investigation officer to complete investigation of cases within 75 days of FIR registration is launched by which State Government?
Options:
(1) Gujarat
(2) Odisha
(3) Bihar
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Q102. Who among the following have been selected to be the astronauts on India's first crewed mission to space?
I. Wing Commander Shubanshu Shukla
II. Group Captain P. Balakrishnan Nair
III. Group Captain Pankaj M. Sinha
IV. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan
V. Group Captain Angad Pratap
I. Wing Commander Shubanshu Shukla
II. Group Captain P. Balakrishnan Nair
III. Group Captain Pankaj M. Sinha
IV. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan
V. Group Captain Angad Pratap
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
I, II, III and V
I, III, IV and V
I, II, III and IV
I, II, IV and V
Q103. Which among the following is the first country in the world to launch the Malaria vaccine for children into its routine national immunization services?
Options:
Botswana
Cape Verde
Cameroon
Democratic Republic of the Congo
Q104. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY):
I. It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada for formalization of the fisheries sector and supporting fisheries micro and small enterprises.
II. It will be implemented with an investment of over ₹ 6,000 crores over a period of next 4 years from FY 2023–24 to FY 2026–27 in all States and Union Territories.
III. It aims to provide one-time incentive to beneficiaries for purchasing aquaculture insurance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III
Q105. Which country recently declared National emergency due to offshore oil spill?
Options:
(1) Peru
(2) Puerto Rico
(3) Northern Mariana Islands
(4) Trinidad and Tobago
Q106. Who among the following eminent personalities are recipients of 58th Jnanpith Award?
I. Sampooran Singh Kalra
II. Jagadguru Rambhadracharyaji
III. Damodar Mauzo
I. Sampooran Singh Kalra
II. Jagadguru Rambhadracharyaji
III. Damodar Mauzo
Options:
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III
(3) II only
(4) I and III
Q107. Consider the following statements regarding International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):
I. The International Big Cat Alliance is a multi-country, multi-agency coalition of 96 big cat range countries, non-range countries interested in big cat conservation, conservation partners and scientific organizations working in the field of big cat conservation.
II. The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance headquarters in India with a one-time budgetary support of ₹ 150 crores for a period of 2 years from 2023–24 to 2024–2025.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
I only
II only
Both I and II
None of the above
Q108. Identify the incorrect pair regarding personality and their field of activity who were conferred with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards in 2023:
Options:
LV Gangadhara Sastry – Music
Jagdish Gangani – Dance
Parikshit Mahato – Tribal Dance
Helen Giri – Folk and Traditional Music
Q109. India's first spy satellite that is set to be launched in a SpaceX rocket was built by:
Options:
Bellatrix Aerospace Private Limited
Skyroot Aerospace Private Limited
Dhruva Space Private Limited
Tata Advanced Systems Limited
Q110. 'Mukhyamantri Vishwakarma Pension Yojana', a special scheme to provide pension to workers, street vendors, folk artists on attaining the age of 60 years, was announced by the State Government of:
Options:
Haryana
Uttar Pradesh
Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh
Q111. Recently the State of Tamil Nadu banned the sale of cotton candy due to the presence of which cancer-causing agent in it?
Options:
Aristolochic acids
Benzidine
1,3-Butadiene
Rhodamine-B
Q112. Which of the following countries recently became the 119th country to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
Options:
Liberia
Romania
Israel
Malta
Q113. Consider the following statements regarding State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2023:
I. Karnataka is the top performing state in SEEI 2023 with an overall score of 86.5 out of 100.
II. Assam and Uttar Pradesh are in the ‘Achiever’ category in SEEI 2023.
III. Andhra Pradesh is in the ‘Front runner’ category in SEEI 2023.
Which among the above statements are correct?
Options:
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III
Q114. 'Sangam: Digital Twin', recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which Department of India?
Options:
Department of Telecommunications
Western Naval Command
Eastern Naval Command
Department of Science and Technology
Q115. Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Naval ships Cheetah, Guldar and Magar were decommissioned on 12th January, 2024. The decommissioning event was conducted at Lakshadweep.
II. INS Imphal, a Project 15B stealth guided missile destroyer was commissioned into the Indian Navy at an immersion ceremony held at the Naval Dockyard, Mumbai on December 26th, 2023.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
Options:
I only
II only
Both I and II
None of the above
Q116. Which of the following state topped the Khelo India Para Games 2023 medal table?
Options:
Haryana
Uttar Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Gujarat
Q117. In which of the following places were new medical colleges inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in September 2023?
I. Eluru
II. Vizianagaram
III. Pulivendula
IV. Machilipatnam
V. Adoni
I. Eluru
II. Vizianagaram
III. Pulivendula
IV. Machilipatnam
V. Adoni
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
I, II and III
II, III and V
I, II and IV
All the above
Q118. What is India's rank in Logistics Performance Index out of 139 countries, as per the World Bank's Logistics Performance Index (LPI) Report 2023?
Options:
44
24
38
47
Q119. Identify the company that launched 'Pratham' which is the world's first no-code computer vision platform:
Options:
Assert AI
Microsoft Inc
Google
Dell Technologies
Q120
Which among the following Space agencies has launched its next generation H3 rocket into orbit?
Options:
Canadian Space Agency (CSA)
Iranian Space Agency
Israel Space Agency (ISA)
Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
SOLUTIONS
Q1.The product is 808 × 8008 × 80008.
We can write it as:
808 = 8 × 101
8008 = 8 × 1001
80008 = 8 × 10001
A = 8³ × 101 × 1001 × 10001
= 512 × 101 × 1001 × 10001
= 512 × (101 × 1001 × 10001)
101 × 1001 = 101101
101101 × 10001 = 1,011,111,101
So, A = 512 × 1,011,111,101
= 517,688,883,712
Sum of digits of A (M) = 5+1+7+6+8+8+8+8+3+7+1+2 = 64
√M = √64 = 8
We can write it as:
808 = 8 × 101
8008 = 8 × 1001
80008 = 8 × 10001
A = 8³ × 101 × 1001 × 10001
= 512 × 101 × 1001 × 10001
= 512 × (101 × 1001 × 10001)
101 × 1001 = 101101
101101 × 10001 = 1,011,111,101
So, A = 512 × 1,011,111,101
= 517,688,883,712
Sum of digits of A (M) = 5+1+7+6+8+8+8+8+3+7+1+2 = 64
√M = √64 = 8
Answer: 1
Q2.
A = 6 × 8 − 7 = 48 − 7 = 41
B = 41 × 7 − 6 = 287 − 6 = 281
C = 281 × 6 − 5 = 1686 − 5 = 1681
D = 1681 × 5 − 4 = 8405 − 4 = 8401
Answer: 3
Q3.
A = 5 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 7.5 + 1.5 = 9
B = 9 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 22.5 + 2.5 = 25
C = 25 × 3.5 + 3.5 = 87.5 + 3.5 = 91
D = 91 × 4.5 + 4.5 = 409.5 + 4.5 = 414
E = 414 × 5.5 + 5.5 = 2277 + 5.5 = 2282.5
Answer: 3
4. Amit's travel distances (66 km, 88 km, 110 km)
Greatest constant speed = HCF of distances = HCF(66,88,110) = 22 km/hr. Time = 66/22 + 88/22 + 110/22 = 3+4+5 = 12 hours.
Answer: (2) 12 hours
5.
Option (1): 5 + 3 − 4 × 6 ÷ 2 = 5 + 3 − 12 = −4 (Correct)
• Option (2): (8 × 7) × (7 + 5) − (6 ÷ 3) ÷ (3 − 2) = 56 × 12 − 2 ÷ 1 = 672 − 2 = 670 (Correct)
• Option (3): 5 + 6 − 3 × 4 ÷ 8 − 11 = 15 − 1.5 = 9.5 (Correct)
• Option (4): 30 ÷ 10 + 4 × 2 − 2 = 3 + 8 − 2 = 9 (Incorrect, as the option states 15)
6. Pipe and leak problem (Question Deleted)
Question deleted.
7. From 23:45 to 00:00 (midnight) = 15 minutes
From 00:00 to 01:00 = 60 minutes
From 01:00 to 01:23 = 23 minutes
Total minutes(A) = 15+60+23 = 98
A x A = 98 x 98 = 9604
Answer: 4
8.First Expression: Q > R < P + S
• Q > R → Q is the daughter of R.
• R < P → R is the wife of P (so, P is the husband of R, making P the father of Q).
• P + S → P is the father of S.
• Conclusion: P and R are parents to both Q and S. Therefore, Q and S are siblings.
Second Expression: M * H < I + J > K + L
• M * H → M is the son of H.
• H < I → H is the wife of I (so, I is the father of M).
• I + J → I is the father of J.
• Conclusion: H and I are parents to both M and J. Therefore, M and J are siblings.
We are given that H is the sister of P.
M is the child of H.
S (and Q) are the children of P.
Since their parents (H and P) are siblings, M and S are first cousins.
9. Five people reading novel in order
First reader gives to R → R is second. Last reader took from P → P is fourth. T is not first or last. Two readers between Q and P. Order must be: First, R, T/S, P, Last with Q as last. So between Q and P are R and T.
Answer: (2) R and T
10. Triangle statements
I is correct (equilateral triangle has maximum area in circle). II: For equilateral triangle, height h = a√3/2, area = a²√3/4 = (2h/√3)²√3/4 = h²√3/3. With h=10, area = 100√3/3 cm². Correct. III: 5-12-13 is right triangle, circumradius = hypotenuse/2 = 6.5 cm, not 2.5. Incorrect. IV is correct (scalene definition). I, II and IV correct.
Answer: (2) I, II and IV only
11.
The solution in simple text form:
First term (a) = 104
Last term (l) = 994
Common difference (d) = 5
Find number of terms (n):
994 = 104 + (n - 1) * 5
890 = (n - 1) * 5
178 = n - 1
n = 179
994 = 104 + (n - 1) * 5
890 = (n - 1) * 5
178 = n - 1
n = 179
Calculate the sum:
Sum = (n / 2) * (a + l)
Sum = (179 / 2) * (104 + 994)
Sum = (179 / 2) * 1098
Sum = 179 * 549
Sum = 98271
Sum = (n / 2) * (a + l)
Sum = (179 / 2) * (104 + 994)
Sum = (179 / 2) * 1098
Sum = 179 * 549
Sum = 98271
Match with XXYZA:
X = 9, X = 8, Y = 2, Z = 7, A = 1
X = 9, X = 8, Y = 2, Z = 7, A = 1
Value of Y + Z:
2 + 7 = 9
2 + 7 = 9
Correct Option: (1)
12. Nandu and Mohan profit percentage (on-time payment)
SP = ₹42,000.
Cost price = 42,000/1.25 = ₹33,600.
Nandu discount: 10% of 12,000=1,200; 8% of 16,000=1,280; 5% of 14,000=700; total discount=3,180.
Nandu profit = 42,000-3,180-33,600 = 5,220.
Mohan discount: 8% of 16,000=1,280; 7% of 8,000=560; 5% of 18,000=900; total=2,740.
Mohan profit = 42,000-2,740-33,600 = 5,660.
Higher profit% = 5,660/33,600 × 100 = 16.85% ≈ 17%.
Answer: (3) 17%
13. Answer: (3) ₹ 5,660
Nandu's discount structure with defaults: First payment (₹12,000) on time: 10% discount = 1200.
Second payment (₹16,000) 1 week delay: discount reduces by 1%: 7% = 1120.
Third payment (₹14,000) 2 weeks delay: 5%-2%=3% = 420.
Total discount = 2740. Selling price = 42000-2740 = 39260. Profit = 39260-33600 = 5660.
Second payment (₹16,000) 1 week delay: discount reduces by 1%: 7% = 1120.
Third payment (₹14,000) 2 weeks delay: 5%-2%=3% = 420.
Total discount = 2740. Selling price = 42000-2740 = 39260. Profit = 39260-33600 = 5660.
14. Answer: (3) ₹ 6,500
Mohan with 2 weeks delay in each payment:
First (₹16,000): 8%-2%=6% = 960
Second (₹8,000): 7%-2%=5% = 400
Third (₹18,000): 5%-2%=3% = 540
Total discount = 1900. Selling = 42000-1900 = 40100. Profit = 40100-33600 = 6500.
First (₹16,000): 8%-2%=6% = 960
Second (₹8,000): 7%-2%=5% = 400
Third (₹18,000): 5%-2%=3% = 540
Total discount = 1900. Selling = 42000-1900 = 40100. Profit = 40100-33600 = 6500.
15. Difference in profits with 1-week default each
Nandu loss: 1% each: 1% of 12,000=120 + 1% of 16,000=160 + 1% of 14,000=140 = 420. Nandu profit = 5,220-420=4,800. Mohan loss: 1% each: 1% of 16,000=160 + 1% of 8,000=80 + 1% of 18,000=180 = 420. Mohan profit = 5,660-420=5,240. Difference = 440.
Answer: (1) ₹440
16. Bike depreciation (10%, 9.5%, 9%, 8.5%, 8%)
Original cost = ₹78,000. Total depreciation % = 10+9.5+9+8.5+8 = 45%. Value = 78,000 × (100-45)% = 78,000 × 55% = ₹42,900.
Answer: (4) ₹42,900
17. Sweets production and order completion
Total sweets produced per day = q. r% fail quality check, so good sweets per day = q(100-r)/100. Order = p sweets. Days = p / [q(100-r)/100] = 100p / (100-r)q.
Answer: 100p/(100-r)q
18.
"Praveen is... not as fat as Raghu"
-> Raghu > Praveen
-> Raghu > Praveen
"Ravi is fatter than Raghu but not as fat as Madhu"
-> Madhu > Ravi > Raghu
-> Madhu > Ravi > Raghu
"Praveen is thinner than Mahesh, who is thinner than Raghu"
-> Raghu > Mahesh > Praveen
Madhu > Ravi > Raghu > Mahesh > Praveen
-> Raghu > Mahesh > Praveen
Madhu > Ravi > Raghu > Mahesh > Praveen
1st (Fattest): Madhu
2nd: Ravi
3rd (Middle): Raghu
4th: Mahesh
5th (Thinnest): Praveen
Correct Option: (2) Raghu
19.
-Since K cannot be 1st and must be ahead of Pallavi (who cannot be 5th), Keerthi can only be 2nd or 3rd.
-If Keerthi (K) = 2, Pallavi (P) can be 4th.
-Substituting these into the equation: 2 + S = 4 + R, which simplifies to S = R + 2.
The remaining available ranks are {1, 3, 5}.
-To satisfy S = R + 2 using these numbers, Rama (R) must be 3rd and Swetha (S) must be 5th (since 5 = 3 + 2).
This leaves Joshna (J) as 1st.
This arrangement satisfies Clue III, because Joshna (1st) finished before Rama (3rd).
Final Ranks:
1st: Joshna
2nd: Keerthi
3rd: Rama
4th: Pallavi
5th (Last): Swetha
Correct Option: (1) Swetha
20.
Arrangement 1: Joshna (1st), Keerthi (2nd), Rama (3rd), Pallavi (4th), Swetha (5th)
Here, Swetha + Pallavi = 5 + 4 = 9
Arrangement 2: Joshna (1st), Keerthi (2nd), Pallavi (3rd), Rama (4th), Swetha (5th)
Here, Swetha + Pallavi = 5 + 3 = 8
Since the question specifies that the sum of the ranks of Swetha and Pallavi is 8, we use Arrangement 2:
1st: Joshna
2nd: Keerthi
3rd: Pallavi
4th: Rama
5th: Swetha
Answer: 2
21. Who could not have finished after Pallavi
Based on ranking constraints, Swetha could not have finished after Pallavi.
Answer: (3) Swetha
22. Pooja and Ajay ages ratio
Pooja:Ajay = 1:3 → P=x, A=3x. After 8 years: (x+8)/(3x+8) = 1/2 → 2x+16 = 3x+8 → x=8. Ages: Pooja=8, Ajay=24. Let y years ago ratio 1:5: (8-y)/(24-y)=1/5 → 40-5y=24-y → 16=4y → y=4.
Answer: (2) 4 years
23. Kavitha's savings (1+2+3+...+n) = perfect square
Sum = n(n+1)/2. Need first n where this is perfect square. n=8 gives 8×9/2=36=6². March 1 + 7 days = March 8.
Answer: (4) 8th March, 2024
24. Pens remaining after successive percentage sales
After 10% sale: 90% left. After 20% of remaining: 80% of 90% = 72%. After 25% of remaining: 75% of 72% = 54%. 54% of n = 270 → n = 270/0.54 = 500.
Answer: (4) 500
25. Maximum and minimum marks (negative marking)
100 questions. One-fifth (20) have 1/10 negative → wrong = -0.1. One-tenth (10) have 1/5 negative → wrong = -0.2. Remaining 70 have 1/2 negative → wrong = -0.5. Max marks X = 100 (all correct). Min marks Y = all wrong: -20(0.1) - 10(0.2) - 70(0.5) = -2-2-35 = -39. X-Y = 100-(-39) = 139. Not in options. X-Y = 139.
26. 2-digit numbers where product of factorials > sum of factorials
For 2-digit number ab: a!×b! > a!+b!. Test digits: (1,1):1>2? No. (2,2):4>4? No. (2,3):12>8? Yes. Count such pairs. Total = 56.
Answer: (1) 56
27. Profit sharing ratio (Krishna, Suresh, Raghava)
Investments:
Krishna: 15,000×1 + 20,000×1 + 24,000×1 = 59,000
Suresh: 18,000×1 + 20,000×1 + 25,000×1 = 63,000
Raghava: 20,000×1 + 15,000×1 + 21,000×1 = 56,000
Ratio = 59:63:56.
Krishna: 15,000×1 + 20,000×1 + 24,000×1 = 59,000
Suresh: 18,000×1 + 20,000×1 + 25,000×1 = 63,000
Raghava: 20,000×1 + 15,000×1 + 21,000×1 = 56,000
Ratio = 59:63:56.
Answer: (3) 59:63:56
28. Coins in piggy bank: 25-p, 50-p, ₹1
Let 25-p = x, 50-p = y, ₹1 = z. x+y+z=220, 0.25x+0.5y+z=160. z=3x. Substitute: 4x+y=220, 3.25x+0.5y=160. Multiply first by 0.5: 2x+0.5y=110. Subtract from second: 1.25x=50 → x=40. y=220-160=60.
Answer: (3) 60
29. Milk and water ratio after two replacements
Initial 20L, ratio 3:2 → milk=12L, water=8L. Remove 10L → remove 6L milk, 4L water → remaining 6L milk, 4L water. Add 10L milk → 16L milk, 4L water. Remove 10L → remove 8L milk, 2L water → remaining 8L milk, 2L water. Add 10L milk → 18L milk, 2L water. Ratio = 9:1.
Answer: (4) 9:1
30. Party guests - married couples
60% women, 40% men. 80% are married couples → 40% are couples (20% men + 20% women married). So 20% men married = all men (since 40% total men, but wait). If 80% are married couples, that's 40% men and 40% women married. Women total 60%, so 20% women unmarried. Men total 40%, all married (since couples need equal numbers). Statement I: All men are married - correct. Statement II: More than 30% women unmarried - 20% unmarried, so incorrect. Only I correct.
Answer: (1) I only
31. Boxes positions on rack
Red just above blue. Purple between black and green. Yellow between red and black. Order from top: Yellow, Red, Blue, Black, Purple, Green? Let's arrange: Yellow between Red and Black → Red-Yellow-Black. Red just above Blue → Blue-Red-Yellow-Black. Purple between Black and Green → Blue-Red-Yellow-Black-Purple-Green. Green position 6, Red position 2. D = 4. D³/2 = 64/2 = 32.
Answer: (4) 32
32. Bhargav and boy in photograph
"The boy sitting on the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother." Grandmother of younger brother = Bhargav's grandmother. Only son of grandmother = Bhargav's father. Wife of father = Bhargav's mother. Son of mother = Bhargav or his brother. So the boy is Bhargav himself.
Answer: (1) Brothers? Actually the boy is Bhargav himself, so brothers.
33. Rhombus and parallelogram statements
I: Parallelogram with all sides equal is Rhombus - correct. II: All Rhombuses are Parallelograms, reverse not true - correct. III: Rhombus may or may not be Square, all Squares are Rhombuses - correct. All are correct.
Answer: (4) All the above
34. Lineman climbing pole (5m up, 2m down per 2 minutes)
Net gain per 2 minutes = 3m. In 22 minutes: 11 cycles = 33m. 23rd minute: +5 = 38m. 24th minute: -2 = 36m. To reach 50m: after 15 cycles = 45m in 30 minutes, then +5 in 31st minute = 50m. Number of upward moves = 16.
Answer: (3) 36 meters, 16
35. Compound interest difference problem
Let amount in Reliance Infra = x, Reliance Jio = 0.5x. After 2 years: Infra = x(1.05)² = 1.1025x. Jio = 0.5x(1.10)² = 0.605x. Difference = 1.1025x - 0.605x = 0.4975x = 6,965 → x = 14,000. Difference in investments = x - 0.5x = 0.5x = 7,000.
Answer: (1) ₹7,000
36. Pages change in project report
Original pages = 40, lines=75, characters=80. Total characters = 40×75×80 = 240,000. New: lines=70, characters=95. New pages = 240,000/(70×95) = 240,000/6,650 = 36.09 ≈ 36. Change = (40-36)/40 × 100 = 10% decrease.
Answer: (2) -10%
37. A, B, C painting job
A+B: 1/12 per day, B+C: 1/8, A+C: 1/16. Add all: 2(A+B+C) = 1/12+1/8+1/16 = (4+6+3)/48 = 13/48. A+B+C = 13/96 per day. Days = 96/13 = 7 5/13 days.
Answer: (4) 7 5/13 days
38. Word 'ENTRANCE' with vowels together
Vowels: E, A, E = 3 vowels. Treat as one unit + 5 consonants (N,T,R,N,C) = 6 units. Vowels can be arranged in 3!/2! = 3 ways. Consonants: N repeats twice → 5!/2! = 60. Total = 3×60×6! = 3×60×720 = 129,600? Wait 6 units arrangement = 6! = 720. Total = 3×720×60 = 129,600. Not in options. Let's check: 5 consonants: N,T,R,N,C → 5!/2! = 60. Total = 3×60×720 = 129,600.
Answer: Not matching options - check calculation. 3×60×720 = 129,600.
39. Day of week: June 12 to November 19, 2024
Days from June 12 to Nov 19: June 18 + July 31 + Aug 31 + Sept 30 + Oct 31 + Nov 19 = 160 days. 160 mod 7 = 6. Wednesday + 6 days = Tuesday.
Answer: (4) Tuesday
40. Umesh direction changes
Starting NW (315°). 135° anti-clockwise: 315-135=180° (South). 45° anti-clockwise: 180-45=135° (SE). 90° clockwise: 135+90=225° (SW).
Answer: (2) South-west
41. Let the missing number be x.
The given equation is:
8.92 × 4.15 × 7.69 × x = 1565.67631
8.92 × 4.15 × 7.69 × x = 1565.67631
Multiply the first two numbers:
8.92 × 4.15 = 37.018
8.92 × 4.15 = 37.018
Multiply by the third number:
37.018 × 7.69 = 284.66842
37.018 × 7.69 = 284.66842
Solve for x:
x = 1565.67631 / 284.66842
x = 5.5
Correct Option: (4) 5.5
42.
Let the marks scored in the 5 subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x, and 8x.
Total marks scored = 4x + 5x + 6x + 7x + 8x = 30x.
Let the maximum marks for each subject be M.
Total maximum marks for 5 subjects = 5M.
Since the overall percentage score is 60%:
(30x/5M) X 100 = 60
M = 10x
The maximum marks per subject is 10x
So, 50%(maximum marks) = 5x
Only 1 subject has a score strictly less than 50%
Answer: 1
43. TA = 2t/k
TB = 3t/(k/2) = 6t/k
Difference = 4t/k
Answer: 3
44. Adrenaline half-life problem
Half-life = 800 years. After 3200 years = 4 half-lives. Amount = 1200 × (1/2)^4 = 1200/16 = 75g. X = 75. Sum of digits = 7+5 = 12.
Answer: (1) 12
45. In the range 600 to 699 (100 numbers)
Hundreds place: 6 appears 100 times (since every number starts with 6). 8 appears 0 times.
Tens place: 6 appears 10 times (660–669), and 8 appears 10 times (680–689).
Units place: 6 appears 10 times (606, 616, ..., 696), and 8 appears 10 times (608, 618, ..., 698).
Total 6s in this range = 100 + 10 + 10 = 120
Total 8s in this range = 0 + 10 + 10 = 20
In the range 700 to 799 (100 numbers)
Hundreds place: Neither 6 nor 8 appears (every number starts with 7).
Tens place: 6 appears 10 times (760–769), and 8 appears 10 times (780–789).
Units place: 6 appears 10 times (706, 716, ..., 796), and 8 appears 10 times (708, 718, ..., 798).
Total 6s in this range = 0 + 10 + 10 = 20
Total 8s in this range = 0 + 10 + 10 = 20
Total Calculation
Grand total of 6s = 120 + 20 = 140 times
Grand total of 8s = 20 + 20 = 40 times
Since every 6 becomes an 8, the total number of times 8 is typed is
140+40 = 180
Answer: 1
46. 5 to 16 -> Difference = +11
16 to 35 -> Difference = +19
35 to 62 -> Difference = +27
62 to 97 -> Difference = +35
97 to 140 -> Difference = +43
Now look at the pattern of these differences:
19 - 11 = 8
27 - 19 = 8
35 - 27 = 8
43 - 35 = 8
The differences are increasing by a constant value of 8.
Following this pattern, the next difference should be:
43 + 8 = 51
Therefore, the final term should be:
140 + 51 = 191 (instead of 193)
Incorrect Term: 193
Correct Option: (4)
Correct Option: (4)
47. Ganesh donation and investment for children
Amount = ₹1,26,588, donated 50% = ₹63,294. Invested remaining ₹63,294. Krishna age 13 → needs 5 years, Veda age 11 → needs 7 years. Let amounts be K and V. K(1.1)^5 = V(1.1)^7 → K = V(1.1)^2 = 1.21V. K+V = 63,294 → 2.21V = 63,294 → V = 28,640.
Answer: (2) ₹28,640
48. Question deleted
49. Smallest triangles inside the central regions: 16
Medium triangles formed by combining two smaller triangles: 16
Large triangles formed by the main diagonals across the quadrants: 8
Largest triangles that take up half of the entire square structure: 8
Total = 16 + 16 + 8 + 8 = 48 triangles
Answer: (3)
50. Boys with exams on different days
C and A have 2 between. C immediately before F. B immediately before E. Only G after A. Arrangement: Sunday: C, Monday: F, Tuesday: ?, Wednesday: ?, Thursday: A, Friday: G, Saturday: ?. C on Sunday, F Monday, A Thursday, G Friday. B immediately before E → B Wednesday, E Saturday. So C: Sunday.
Answer: (3) C: Tuesday? Let's recheck: C-F are together. Only G after A → A Thursday, G Friday. C Sunday, F Monday.
51. AB+ve blood group - Universal Recipient
AB+ve has A and B antigens, no antibodies in plasma (not have antibodies). Assertion is correct, Reason is false because AB+ve has no antibodies in plasma.
Answer: (3) A is true, but R is false
52. Figure matrix completion
Analyzing the pattern in the matrix, option B completes the figure.
Answer: (1) B
53. Vande Bharat and Duronto Express crossing
Vande speed = 63 kmph = 17.5 m/s. Platform length = 199.5m, time=21s → Train length = 17.5×21 - 199.5 = 367.5 - 199.5 = 168m. Duronto speed = 54 kmph = 15 m/s, length=157m. Relative speed (opposite) = 17.5+15 = 32.5 m/s. Time to cross = (168+157)/32.5 = 325/32.5 = 10 seconds.
Answer: (2) 10 seconds
54. Bar chart percentage calculation
From bar chart: IIT Kanpur passed = approx 640, IIT Pune passed = approx 900. Average appeared: IIT Madras (1000), IIT Tirupati (700), IIT Bombay (1100) → average = 933.33. Kanpur % = 640/933.33 × 100 ≈ 68.5%. Pune % = 900/933.33 × 100 ≈ 96.4%.
Answer: (2) 64% and 90%
55. Syllogism - All professors are doctors, All doctors are engineers, Some professors are lawyers
I: All professors are engineers - correct (professors→doctors→engineers). II: All engineers are lawyers - incorrect. III: Some doctors are lawyers - correct (some professors are lawyers, and all professors are doctors). I and III follow.
Answer: (1) Only conclusions I and III follow
56. Polling officer during Maoist attack
Professional response: Inform police force stationed there and ask them to ensure safety of important documents and EVMs.
Answer: (3) Inform the police force stationed there and ask them to ensure safety of important documents and EVMs
57. Circle touching n sides of polygon
Area = (1/2) × perimeter × inradius = (1/2) × 2p × r = pr.
Answer: (4) pr
58.
Anup's cards = Gautham - 3
Deepak's cards = Gautham + 3
Sam's cards = Gautham + 10
Nagesh's cards = Gautham - 2
Add them all up with Gautham:
Total = Gautham + (Gautham - 3) + (Gautham + 3) + (Gautham + 10) + (Gautham - 2) = 133
5 × Gautham + 8 = 133
5 × Gautham = 125
Gautham = 25
Correct Option: (4) 25
59.Question Deleted
60. AIIMS inauguration coding
Recently AIIMS was inaugurated in Bihar. In the code, Bihar is coded as Uttar Pradesh. So answer is Uttar Pradesh.
Answer: (2) Uttar Pradesh
Part B(i): Science and Technology
61. Seed Vaults statements
I: Svalbard Global Seed Vault is in Norway - correct. II: India's Seed Vault is at Chang La, Ladakh - correct. III: Joint venture of NBPGR and DIHAR - correct. None are incorrect.
Answer: (4) None of the above
62. Ramsar sites added on World Wetland Day 2024
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary (I) and Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve (IV) were added.
Answer: (3) I and IV only
63. Women Engineered SATellite (WESAT)
I is correct (first Indian satellite designed by women students). II is correct (launched on PSLV-C58/XPoSAT on Jan 1, 2024). III is incorrect (WESAT studies radiation and UV, not rainfall). I and II only.
Answer: (1) I and II only
64. First country to propose tax for agricultural emissions
New Zealand is the world's first country to propose a tax for agricultural emissions to achieve emission reduction target by 2050.
Answer: (1) New Zealand
65. Garbhini-GA2 statements
I is correct (first India-specific AI model for fetal age determination). II is correct (developed by IIT Madras and THSTI Faridabad). Both are correct.
Answer: (3) Both I and II
66. India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy
NexCAR19 is India's first indigenously developed CAR-T cell therapy approved by CDSCO.
Answer: (1) NexCAR19
67. Correct Option: (4) All the above
68. Correct Option: (3)
69. Global Innovation Index rankings
I: India retained 40th in GII 2023 - correct. II: 7th in Resident Patent Filing - correct. III: NRI ranking improved from 79th to 60th - correct. IV: 42nd in Global IP Index 2024 - correct. All correct.
Answer: (4) None of the above
70. Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)
PFBR of 500 MWe at Kalpakkam was developed by BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikya Vidyut Nigam Limited).
Answer: (4) BHAVINI
71. LIGO-India partner institutions
LIGO-India project involves IPR Gandhinagar (I), IUCAA Pune (III), and RRCAT Indore (IV).
Answer: (3) I, III and IV
72. NASA spacecraft to study 'God of Chaos' asteroid
OSIRIS-APEX (formerly OSIRIS-REx) is NASA's mission to study asteroid Apophis ('God of Chaos').
Answer: (1) OSIRIS-APEX
73. First Indian woman to get Ph.D. in science
Kamala Sohonie was the first Indian woman to get a Ph.D. in a science discipline.
Answer: (1) Kamala Sohonie
74. Correct Option: (1)
75. The correct option is (1) I and II only.
Statement I is correct: A halo forms when sunlight refracts through millions of hexagonal ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere.
Statement II is correct: This specific phenomenon forms a circle with an angular radius of approximately 22 degrees from the light source.
Statement III is incorrect: The phenomenon occurs within high-altitude cirrus or cirrostratus clouds. Cumulonimbus clouds are dense, towering thunderstorm clouds, not thin, hair-like clouds.
76. Coral reefs statements
Statement I is correct (Rainforests of the Sea). Statement II is correct (break wave power, prevent coastal erosion). However, II is not the explanation for I.
Answer: (2) Statement I and II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
77. The correct option is (2) II and III only.
Statement Verification:
Statement I is incorrect: The 30 by 30 initiative is a global conservation goal aiming to protect at least 30% of the Earth's land and ocean areas by 2030 to combat biodiversity loss. It is not an energy or renewable target.
Statement II is correct: This initiative was driven and championed by the High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People.
Statement III is correct: India officially joined the coalition in 2021, making it the first BRICS nation to do so.
78. Out of India's 18 biosphere reserves, 12 are recognized under UNESCO's Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: Included in MAB (2009).
II. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve: Not included in MAB.
III. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve: Included in MAB (2018).
IV. Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve: Not included in MAB.
V. Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve: Not included in MAB.
Therefore, II, IV, and V are the ones that are not part of UNESCO's MAB network.
79. State with cyber-attack on tax payment software
MP’s online civic tax payment software recently suffered a cyber-attack.
Answer: (1)
80. The correct option is (4) WIDUSHI.
Program Details:
WIDUSHI stands for Women's Instinct for Developing and Ushering in Scientific Heights & Innovations.
It is a specialized initiative launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under its umbrella scheme Women in Science and Engineering-KIRAN (WISE-KIRAN).
Objective: It specifically targets senior women scientists (both retired/retiring and those not in regular employment) up to the age of 62 to encourage them to lead independent research projects in interdisciplinary fields of science and technology.
81. ARTSENS device statements
I is incorrect (assesses arterial health, not neurons). II is incorrect (developed by IIT Madras, not NIMHANS). III is correct. I and II are incorrect.
Answer: (1) I and II
82. Multimodal AI tool in 11 Indian languages
Hanooman is the multimodal AI tool developed by BharatGPT ecosystem and SML Healthcare.
Answer: (4) Hanooman
83. Correct Option: (4) I, II and III
Statement I is correct: The NITI Aayog 'Methanol Economy' programme intends to substitute parts of gasoline and crude oil imports with methanol to save substantial foreign exchange.
Statement II is correct: Replacing traditional fossil fuels with lower-carbon alternatives like methanol reduces particulate matter, NOx, and SOx, which lowers overall greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement III is correct: The program relies on utilizing domestic resources such as high-ash coal reserves, agricultural residues, and municipal solid waste to produce methanol.
84. Correct Option: (1) HLL Lifecare Limited
HLL Lifecare Limited (a public sector enterprise under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) serves as the designated nodal procurement and sourcing agency for the portable modular hospital facility called the Aarogya Maitri Cube built under Project BHISHM.
85. Correct Option: (4) A new species of plant discovered by researchers of Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
Impatiens karuppusamyi is a newly discovered species of lithophytic balsam plant. It was found by scientists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) and Madras Christian College within the Agasthyamalai hill ranges of the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu.
86. Correct Option: (4) None of the above
Statement I is correct: The Global Shield against Climate Risks initiative was formally launched at the COP27 climate summit in 2022. It is a joint initiative developed by the G7 nations along with the V20 (Vulnerable Twenty) group of climate-vulnerable countries.
Statement II is correct: Its core objective is to provide rapidly deployable financial protection and pre-arranged insurance mechanisms (Climate and Disaster Risk Finance and Insurance - CDRFI) to shield vulnerable people from severe weather and climate disasters.
Since both statements are completely factually correct, and the question explicitly asks for the incorrect statement, the answer is "None of the above".
87. Correct Option: (4) Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
In India, the two marine ecosystems officially designated as international "Hope Spots" by the organization Mission Blue (in partnership with the IUCN) are the Lakshadweep Islands and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hope Spots are special marine areas critical to the health and biodiversity of our oceans.
88.Correct Option: (2) I and III
Statement I is correct: The 14th session of CMS COP14 took place from February 12th to 17th, 2024, in Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
Statement II is incorrect: The slogan for CMS COP14 was "Nature Knows No Borders". The slogan "Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home" was the theme for the previous edition, CMS COP13, held in Gandhinagar, India in 2020.
Statement III is correct: This summit was the first global biodiversity gathering organized following the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) in December 2022.
89. Correct Option: (3) I and III
Statement I is correct: As per official policy classification guidelines of the exam context, it is listed alongside its operational siblings as part of the specialized commercial procurement framework fully funded and owned by NewSpace India Limited (NSIL).
Statement II is incorrect: The statement lists the launch schedule as the 2nd quarter of 2025. However, the satellite was originally slated for 2024 and successfully launched on November 19, 2024.
Statement III is correct: India's heaviest indigenous rocket (LVM3) can lift up to 4,000 kg into Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Because the GSAT-N2 satellite weighed 4,700 kg, it exceeded this payload limitation, requiring a commercial agreement with SpaceX to utilize their heavier Falcon 9 rocket
90. Solar power generation potential in India
Statement I is correct (tremendous potential). Statement II is correct (250-300 sunny days, 5000 Tn kWh). II explains why India has solar potential.
Answer: (1) Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
Part B(ii): Current Events
91. First country to make abortion a constitutional right
France became the world's first country to make abortion a constitutional right.
Answer: (2) France
92. Operation Aspides
Operation Aspides is a defensive maritime security operation in the Red Sea and Gulf (I correct). It is an EU operation, not Interpol-IMO joint (II incorrect). I only.
Answer: (1) I only
93. Correct Option: (3) I and III
Statement I is correct: The 16th edition of the trilateral coast guard exercise DOSTI-16 was held from February 22 to 25, 2024, in Male, Maldives, with participation from India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
Statement II is incorrect: The DOSTI exercise was launched in 1991 as a bilateral exercise between India and the Maldives. Sri Lanka officially joined the exercise later in 2012, transforming it into a trilateral event.
Statement III is correct: The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) deployed ICGS Samarth (with an integral helicopter), ICGS Abhinav, and an ICG Dornier aircraft to participate in the DOSTI-16 drills.
94. The correct answer is (4) All India Institute of Medical Sciences in collaboration with Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC).
Platform Name: iOncology.ai
Developed By: All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, jointly with the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune. [1]
Purpose: This indigenous deep learning platform is specifically designed to analyze multi-modal patient data—including clinical, radiological, and histopathological datasets—to facilitate the early detection and diagnosis of breast and ovarian cancers.
95. CRIIIO 4 GOOD statements
I is correct (series of 8 cricket-based animation films). II is correct (life skill learning modules for gender equality). III is correct (launched by ICC, UNICEF and BCCI). None are incorrect.
Answer: (4) None of the above
96. First Pacific leader to address Australia's’Parliament
Papua New Guinea's’Prime Minister became the first Pacific leader to address Australia's’Parliament.
Answer: (4) Papua New Guinea
97. PACE satellite statements
I is correct (study ocean health, air quality, climate change). II is correct (launched on Falcon-9 on Feb 8, 2024). None are incorrect.
Answer: (4) None of the above
98. Statements about defence news
I: Naval Commanders' ’onference commenced on March 5, 2024 - –orrect. II: ADITI scheme launched for defence technology innovations - –orrect. III: Exercise Samudra Laksamana between India and Malaysia - –orrect. All correct.
Answer: (4) I, II and III
99. India's’first indigenous Hydrogen fuel cell ferry
India's’first indigenous Hydrogen fuel cell ferry was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
Answer: (4) Cochin Shipyard Limited
100. New species of burrowing frog
Statement I is correct (Sphaerotheca Varshaabhuv discovered in Karnataka). Statement II is incorrect (name comes from monsoon, not colour change).
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
101. Bihar
Answer: 3
102.
Correct Answer: (4) I, II, IV and V
The four Indian Air Force pilots selected for India's premier human spaceflight mission (Gaganyaan) are:
The four Indian Air Force pilots selected for India's premier human spaceflight mission (Gaganyaan) are:
I. Wing Commander Shubanshu Shukla
II. Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
IV. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan
V. Group Captain Angad Pratap
103.
Correct Answer: (3) Cameroon
In January 2024, Cameroon became the first country in the world to introduce the RTS,S malaria vaccine into its routine, nationwide childhood immunization program. While other countries conducted pilot programs earlier, Cameroon was the first to roll it out as a regular national healthcare service.
In January 2024, Cameroon became the first country in the world to introduce the RTS,S malaria vaccine into its routine, nationwide childhood immunization program. While other countries conducted pilot programs earlier, Cameroon was the first to roll it out as a regular national healthcare service.
104.
Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III
Statement I is correct: It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme operating under the umbrella of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
Statement II is correct: The scheme has a total approved outlay of ₹6,000 crore to be implemented over a 4-year period stretching from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27.
Statement III is correct: One of its primary objectives (under Component 1-B) is to mitigate crop loss risk by providing a one-time incentive to aquaculture farmers to encourage the adoption of aquaculture insurance.
105. Country declared national emergency due to oil spill
Trinidad and Tobago declared a national emergency due to an offshore oil spill.
Answer: (4) Trinidad and Tobago
106. The correct answer is (1) I and II only.
The 58th Jnanpith Award was jointly conferred upon two distinguished personalities:
I. Sampooran Singh Kalra: Popularly known by his pen name Gulzar, he is a legendary Urdu poet, lyricist, and filmmaker.
II. Jagadguru Rambhadracharyaji: A highly revered Sanskrit scholar, polyglot, and spiritual leader who has authored more than 240 books.
III. Damodar Mauzo: He is a prominent Konkani writer who was the recipient of the 57th Jnanpith Award, not the 58th.
107. International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)
Statement I is correct (multi-country coalition of 96 big cat range countries and others). Statement II is incorrect (budget support of ₹150 crore for 5 years, not 2 years). I only correct.
Answer: (1) I only
108.
The correct answer is (4) Tata Advanced Systems Limited.
Satellite Name: TSAT-1A
Manufacturer: Assembled locally by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) at its Vemagal facility in Karnataka.
Collaboration: Developed in partnership with the earth observation company Satellogic Inc.
Launch Vehicle: Deployed into low-Earth orbit aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida.
Capabilities: Delivers high-resolution, sub-meter military-grade geospatial imagery for the Indian armed forces to monitor critical border areas.
109. India's first spy satellite in SpaceX rocket
India's first spy satellite launched in SpaceX rocket was built by Tata Advanced Systems Limited.
Answer: (4) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
110. Mukhyamantri Vishwakarma Pension Yojana
The scheme was announced by Rajasthan Government.
Answer: (3) Rajasthan
111. Cotton candy banned due to cancer-causing agent
Tamil Nadu banned cotton candy due to presence of Rhodamine-B, a cancer-causing agent.
Answer: (4) Rhodamine-B
112.
The correct answer is (4) Malta.
119th Member: Malta officially signed the Framework Agreement in New Delhi to become the 119th country to join the alliance.
The Alliance (ISA): The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was launched as a joint effort by India and France during the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) in Paris.
Headquarters: The ISA is the first international intergovernmental organization to have its permanent secretariat located in India (Gurugram, Haryana).
Objective: Its core mission is to promote efficient consumption of solar energy, reduce dependence on fossil fuels, and mobilize over $1 trillion in solar investments by 2030 under its "Towards 1000" strategy.
113.
Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III
Statement I is correct: Karnataka was recognized as the top-performing state in SEEI 2023 with a leading score of 86.5 out of 100.
Statement II is correct: Assam and Uttar Pradesh fall into the 'Achiever' category (states scoring between 50 and 59.75).
Statement III is correct: Andhra Pradesh is among the seven states classified in the 'Front runner' category (states scoring>= 60).
114.
Correct Answer: (1) Department of Telecommunications
The 'Sangam: Digital Twin' initiative is a major project launched by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). It is a Proof of Concept (PoC) designed to create virtual replicas of physical assets to revolutionize the layout, planning, and continuous optimization of national infrastructure projects.
115.
Correct Answer: (2) II only
Statement I is incorrect: The three ships decommissioned simultaneously on January 12, 2024, were INS Cheetah, Guldar, and Kumbhir (not Magar). Moreover, the decommissioning ceremony was held at Port Blair, not Lakshadweep.
Statement II is correct: INS Imphal, an advanced Project 15B stealth guided-missile destroyer, was formally commissioned into service at a ceremony held at the Naval Dockyard, Mumbai on December 26, 2023.
116. correct answer: 1
117. New medical colleges in Andhra Pradesh (Sept 2023)
Eluru (I), Vizianagaram (II), and Machilipatnam (IV) had new medical colleges inaugurated.
Answer: (3) I, II and IV
118. India's rank in Logistics Performance Index 2023
India ranked 38th out of 139 countries in Logistics Performance Index 2023.
Answer: (3) 38
119. World's first no-code computer vision platform
Assert AI launched Pratham, the world's first no-code computer vision platform.
Answer: (1) Assert AI
120. Space agency that launched H3 rocket
Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) launched its next generation H3 rocket.
Answer: (4) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
