APPSC G1 2022 PYQ’S

1. During the Indus Valley Civilization, the beads manufacturing industry was located at

Dholavira

Suktagendor

Chanhudaro

Daimabad

2. Select the correct statements about religious beliefs of the Rig Vedic Period :

I. Dyus was a celestial God of the Rig Vedic Aryans similar to Jupiter of the Greeks.

II. Prithvi was considered as the mother of all Gods.

III. Agni was worshipped as the intermediary of taking the offerings to the deities.

IV. Cow sacrifice was also the part of worship.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

I, II and III only

II, III and IV only

I, III and IV only

I, II and IV only

3. Match the following schools of philosophies with their theories :

| Schools of Philosophy | Theories |

Schools of Philosophy	Theories
a. Sankhya	I. Predetermined fate theory
b. Vaisheshika	II. World was formed by the blending of nature
c. Lokayata	III. Considered Atom as basis of the world
d. Ajivika	IV. Advocated materialistic ideology

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) II IV I III

(2) II III IV I

(3) IV III II I

(4) III I IV II

4. Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela gave the details of irrigation facilities provided in the Kalinga Region by

Mahapadmananda

Bimbisara

Ajatasatru

Ashoka

5. Select the correct statements regarding the inscriptions of Ashoka:

They are in Brahmi, Kharosthi, Greek and Aramaic scripts.

The Monarch's name was mentioned as Ashoka only in Maski and Gurjara inscriptions.

The XIII Rock edict mentioned the names of the five Greek Rulers as his contemporaries.

The IV and V edicts mentioned the war of succession with his brothers.

(1) 1, 2 and 3 only

(2) 2, 3 and 4 only

(3) 1, 3 and 4 only

(4) 1, 2 and 4 only

6. Match the following books with their authors:

Books	Authors
a. Prajnaparamita	I. Acharya Kundakunda
b. Samayasara	II. Sarvavarma
c. Lilavati Parinayam	III. Acharya Nagarjuna
d. Katantra Vyakaranam	IV. Kuthuhala

	a	b	c	d
(1)	III	I	II	IV
(2)	I	III	IV	II
(3)	III	I	IV	II
(4)	I	II	III	IV

7.Which of the following was not the feature of the Guilds during the Gupta Period ?

(1) Minted Coins

(2) Non-Autonomous Bodies

(3) Maintained Armed Bodies

(4) Worked as Bankers

8. The account of Greek (Yavana) invasion during the reign of Pushyamitra Sunga is available in :

I. Gargi - Samhita

II. Patanjali - Mahabhashya

III. Kalidasa - Malavikagnimitra

IV. Visakhadatta - Mudrarakshasa

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, III and IV

(4) I, II and IV

9. Choose the correct statement regarding Nalanda University at the time of Harshavardana :

(1) Harshavardana donated 10,000 villages to the university.

(2) The number of teachers in the university were 15,000.

(3) Silabhadra was the Chancellor of the university.

(4) The medium of instruction was Pali.

Match the following taxes :

Name Tax

a. Navidadere I. Tax on Marriage

b. Melivamsam II. Tax on Barbers

c. Manevana III. Tax on Ploughs

d. Tudimeya IV. Tax on Houses

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

a b c d

(1) II III IV I

(2) II IV III I

(3) I III IV II

(4) IV II I III

11. Arrange the following temples of Ellora in chronological order according to their time of construction :

I. Ravan ki Khai

II. Kailasanatha

III. Dashavatara

IV. Dumar Lena

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) II, IV, III, I

(2) I, III, IV, II

(3) III, I, IV, II

(4) III, IV, II, I

12. Match the following terms with their meaning related to village administration of the Cholas :

Terms Meaning

a. Variyam I. Ward

b. Kudumba II. Lottery system

c. Kudavolai III. Member of the village assembly

d. Perumakkal IV. Committee system

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

a b c d

(1) IV I III II

(2) II III I IV

(3) IV I II III

(4) I IV III II

13. Which of the following highways existed during the rule of Kakatiyas ?

I. Orugallu – Tripuranthakam – Nellore

II. Dwarasamudra – Ballari – Orugallu

III. Motupalli – Tripuranthakam – Ballari

IV. Palnadu – Nalgonda – Nekarikallu – Orugallu

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

I and II only

II and III only

III and IV only

I and IV only

14. Which of the principles are common for Bhakti and Sufi movement?

I. Monotheism

II. Asceticism

III. Religious tolerance

IV. Accepted the idol worship to some extent

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

I, II and III only

II, III and IV only

I, III and IV only

I, II and IV only

15. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the foreign chronicles of the Vijayanagara Period:

Abdur Razzaq	Described the conditions during the reign of Devaraya II
Domingo Paes	Described the rule of Krishna Devaraya
Caesar Frederic	Wrote about the conditions of Vijayanagara after the battle of Rakshasa Tangadi
Nikitin	Visited during the reign of Achyuta Devaraya

16. The Vijayanagara ruler who permitted Jesuits to build churches at Nellore and Chandragiri was

Devaraya II

Venkatapati Raya II

Thirumala Raya I

Sadasiva Raya II

17. Which of the following incidents took place during the reign of Jahangir?

I. The fifth Sikh Guru, Arjan Dev was sentenced to death

II. Victory over Rajputs of Mewar

III. Annexation of Kabul and Kandahar

IV. Arrival of English East India Company to India

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(1) I, II and III only

(2) II, III and IV only

(3) I, III and IV only

(4) I, II and IV only

18.Match the following revenue officials during the reign of Akbar with their duties:

a. Amalguzar	I. Kept records of the revenue payable by the villages
b. Karkuns	II. Revenue Collector in-charge of a District
c. Qanungo	III. Accountant
d. Bitikchi	IV. Prepared the seasonal crop statistics

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

a b c d

(1) II IV I III

(2) II IV III I

(3) IV II I III

(4) III I IV II

19. The longest Trunk Road constructed by Shershah which still exists is

(1) Agra to Burhanpur

(2) Indus to Sonargaon

(3) Agra to Chittor

(4) Lahore to Multan

20. Match the following books with their authors :

Books	Authors	Authors
a. India at the Death of Akbar	a. India at the Death of Akbar	I. Irfan Habib
b. The Agrarian System of Mughal India, 1556 – 1707	b. The Agrarian System of Mughal India, 1556 – 1707	II. François Bernier
c. Travels in the Mogul Empire: AD 1656 – 1668	c. Travels in the Mogul Empire: AD 1656 – 1668	III. William Foster
d. Early Travels in India, 1583 – 1619 \|	d. Early Travels in India, 1583 – 1619 \|	IV. Moreland

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) IV III II I

(2) III I IV II

(3) IV I II III

(4) II IV III I

21. The following historian contended that Taj Mahal is a combination of European and Asiatic genius:

Ralph Fitch

Tavernier

V.A. Smith

Fergusson

22. Match the following with the year they were formulated :

Events/Acts	Year
a. Famine Code	I.1881
b. Vernacular Press Act	II. 1878
c. Charles Wood's Despatch on Education	III. 1883
d. 1st Factory Act	IV. 1854

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) III IV II I

(2) I II IV III

(3) IV III I II

(4) III II IV I

23. Arrange the following incidents of Rebellion against East India Company in the State of Hyderabad in chronological order :

I. Attack of Turrebaz Khan on British Residence in Hyderabad

II. Imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula in Golkonda Fort

III. In Aurangabad, IContingent Cavalry was suspected, disarmed and arrested

IV. The rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of Shorapur

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) IV, III, I, II

(2) II, III, I, IV

(3) II, I, III, IV

(4) I, II, IV, III

24. Match the following Presidents of Indian National Congress with their meetings:

Names of Presidents	Sessions / Meetings
a. Dadabhai Naoroji	I. Madras – 1887
b. Badruddin Tyabji	II. Bombay – 1889
c. George Yule	III. Allahabad – 1888
d. William Wedderburn	IV. Calcutta – 1886

	a	b	c	d
(1)	IV	III	I	II
(2)	III	II	IV	I
(3)	IV	I	III	II
(4)	II	I	III	IV

25. The following book was translated by Gandhiji with the title Sarvodaya :

John Ruskin – Unto This Last

Leo Tolstoy – The Kingdom of God is Within You

Karl Marx – Das Kapital

Maxim Gorky – The Lower Depths

26.Match the following newspapers with the persons associated with them :

a. Indian Sociologist	I. Virendra Chattopadhyay
b. Islamic Fraternity	II. Shyamji Krishna Varma
c. The Talwar	III. Muhammad Barkatullah
d. Swadesh Sevak	IV. G.D. Kumar

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) II III I IV

(2) IV III II I

(3) II IV I III

(4) I II III IV

27. The idea of Indian Constituent Assembly was put forward for the first time by

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

C.R. Das

G.B. Pant

M.N. Roy

28.Match the following authors with their works :

a	Al-Biruni	II. Tahqiq-i-Hind
b	Minhaj-us-Siraj	IV. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
c	Ziauddin Barani	I. Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi
d	Ibn Battuta	III. The Rihla

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) II IV I III

(2) IV II I III

(3) II IV III I

(4) III I IV II

29. Which of the following institutions were not established during the Non-Cooperation Movement ?

Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle

Jamia Millia Islamia, Delhi

Kashi Vidyapith, Benaras

Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

I and II only

II and III only

III and IV only

I and IV only

30. The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the House of Commons by the British Prime Minister Attlee on

2nd July, 1947

3rd July, 1947

4th July, 1947

5th July, 1947

Part B: Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International Relations

31.Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the State Finance Commission ?

I. It is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years.

II. It recommends the determination of taxes, duties, tolls and fees assigned to the Panchayats and Municipalities.

III. Article 243 deals with constitution of finance commission to review financial position of Panchayats.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

II, III and IV

I, II and III

I and II

All of the above

32.Which of the following Amendment(s) provide(s) for reservation in jobs and admissions ?

77th

82nd

81st

All of the above

33.Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code

Assertion (A) : The President is the executive power of the Union.

Reason (R) : The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.

Code :

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

34. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?

I. It is a statutory body.

II. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.

III. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure.

IV. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All-India services as well as Central services and Central Government posts.

V. It was set up in 1985.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

II, III and V

I and IV

I, III, IV and V

II and III

35. Which of the following statements is not one of the powers of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly?

He has no veto except in case of a tie.

A Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly after fourteen days notice of the intention to move such a resolution.

The Speaker vacates his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

The Speaker will preside when a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration of the Assembly.

36. The powers of the Election Commission include which of the following?

I. The Election Commission takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results.

II. During the election period, the Election Commission can order the Government to dismiss some government officials.

III. When on election duty, Government officers work under the control of the Election Commission.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

I and II only

I and III only

I only

All of the above

37. What is/are the provision(s) to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

I. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

II. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

III. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India on which the legislature does not have to vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I and III only

I and II only

III only

I, II and III

38. Which of the following are not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court ?

I. A dispute between two or more States.

II. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.

III. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.

IV. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

I and II

II and III

I and IV

III and IV

39. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has the powers on the following matters :

I. It can receive evidences on affidavits.

II. It can requisition any public record from any court or office.

III. It can issue summons for the examination of witnesses and documents.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

All of the above

40. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) :

The Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses.

Reason (R) :

The President is a part of the legislature even though he does not sit in Parliament except for the purpose of delivering his opening address.

Code :

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

41. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution ?

I. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.

II. To develop scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

III. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

IV. To safeguard public property and adjure violence.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) II and III only

(2) I and III only

(3) II, III and IV

(4) All of the above

42. Which of the following entries of the Indian Constitution deals with the institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India, wholly or in part, and declared by Parliament, by law to be institutions of national importance?

Entry 64

Entry 63

Entry 65

Entry 66

43. Who said "India is not a nation in the traditional western sense but a comprehensive culture of continental scope compounded of a very large number of linguistic and religious entities, highly complex and often strongly antagonistic local cultures"?

Carl Friedrich

P.H. Appleby

Woodrow Wilson

Jawaharlal Nehru

44. The Constitution confers which of the following Articles that denies the rights to aliens (Foreign Citizens)?

I. Articles 29 and 30

II. Article 19

III. Articles 23 and 24

IV. Article 16

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(1) II and III only

(2) I, II and IV only

(3) III and IV only

(4) All of the above

45. Consider the following statements

I. The Preamble was enacted before the enactment of the entire Constitution.

II. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

III. It is enforceable through Courts of Law.

IV. The Objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became the foundation for the Preamble.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

I and II only

II and IV only

I and III only

I, II and III only

46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 29th May, 2021 for the children.

II. It aims to support children who have lost both the parents or legal guardians or adoptive parents or surviving parent to Covid-19 pandemic.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

I only

II only

47. With child labour being made illegal and right to education becoming a fundamental right for children, this right against exploitation has become more meaningful.

Which of the following pairs of Articles provide for right to education and prohibition of child labour respectively ?

Articles 21A and 23

Articles 21A and 24

Articles 23 and 24

Articles 14 and 19

48. Consider the following statements regarding GST :

I. GST will bring more transparency to direct tax laws.

II. GST was the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in the Parliament.

III. GST is a destination-based tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) I and II only

(2) II only

(3) II and III only

(4) I, II and III

49. Which of the bodies recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the States, and allocation between the States, the respective shares of such proceeds ?

(1) NITI Aayog

(2) Finance Commission of India

(3) Inter State Council

(4) National Development Council

50. Which of the following is not the function of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes ?

(1) Providing constitutional protection to Scheduled Castes.

(2) To submit the report to the Prime Minister related to the protection of Scheduled Castes.

(3) To investigate any case that violates the interests of Scheduled Castes.

(4) None of the above

51. Which of the following is not a function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?

(1) Conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union

(2) Consultation on all disciplinary matters

(3) Method of recruitment

(4) Manner of reservation

52. Which of the following subjects are listed in the 11th Schedule?

I. Women and Child Development

II. Public Distribution System

III. Libraries

IV. Slum Improvement and Upgradation

V. Markets and Fairs

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, II and V

(2) I, II, III and IV

(3) I, II, III and V

(4) All of the above

53. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Green Tribunal?

I. It was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

II. NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

III. NGT has six places of sitting throughout the country.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(1) I only

(2) II and III only

(3) I and II only

(4) I, II and III

54. With reference to the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

I. Judge of the Supreme Court can now be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission.

II. Term of the Chairperson and members shall be three years.

III. Chairperson and members shall be eligible for re-appointment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I, II and III

(4) I only

55. With reference to the National Commission for Minorities, consider the following statements :

I. It was set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.

II. Ministry of Welfare has notified five religious communities under "Minority" status, to date.

III. It can make recommendations for the effective implementation of safeguards for the protection of minorities by Central or State Governments.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I, II and III

(4) I and III only

56.Recently, the term ‘Chicago Convention’ is frequently seen in the news. Which of the following sector is it associated with?

(1) Carbon Capture

(2) Civil Aviation

(3) Merchant Shipping

(4) Chlorofluorocarbons

57.With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements:

I. It is a statutory body established under Competition Act, 2002 as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007.

II. It consists of a chairperson and five members appointed by the Central Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

58. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on the recommendation of which of the following Committee?

(1) Sivaraman Committee

(2) Santhanam Committee

(3) Sarkaria Committee

(4) Rajamannar Committee

59.‘World Competitiveness Index’ is released by which of the following organizations?

(1) Institute for Management Development

(2) United Nations Development Programme

(3) World Economic Forum

(4) World Bank

60.Kautilya categorizes the Governments and Heads of Departments into 18 tirthas. Amongst these "Dandapala" is the

(1) Magistrate

(2) Chief Council of Ministries

(3) Officer of the Army Department

(4) Guardian of the Forts

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason ( R ) Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) : There is a structural change in the composition of National Income in India.

Reason (R) : The process of economic growth was initiated in India.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

62. The economist who said that the "Net Social Product and the Social Income are one and the same thing" is

(1) Adam Smith

(2) Alfred Marshall

(3) P.A. Samuelson

(4) J.R. Hicks

63. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) : Per Capita Income decreases in a developing country even though National Income increases.

Reason (R) : The rate of growth of population is higher than the rate of growth of National Income.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

64. During which Five Year Plan was the rate of growth of Gross Domestic Product the highest ?

(1) 9th Five Year Plan

(2) 10th Five Year Plan

(3) 11th Five Year Plan

(4) 12th Five Year Plan

65. Which of the following is not a feature of MGNREGS ?

I. Guaranteed minimum wage employment

II. Rights-based employment scheme

III. Generation of wage employment in rural areas

IV. Provision of nutritious food

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) I, III and IV

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II and III

66.What is the age-group of higher proportion of working population required for Demographic Dividend ?

(1) 15 – 64 years

(2) 18 – 65 years

(3) 18 – 60 years

(4) 15 – 60 years

67.Which of the following are the objectives of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao ?

I. To provide legal assistance to girls

II. To reduce decline in Child Sex Ratio

III. To encourage women empowerment

IV. To remove gender inequality

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

68.Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) :

National Income growth fluctuates with fluctuations in Agriculture growth in India.

Reason (R) :

Weather conditions, especially rains, are uncertain in India.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

69. Match the following :

LIST I LIST II

a. Trade	I. Primary Sector
b. Water Supply	II. Service Sector
c. Fisheries	III. Central Statistical Organisation
d. GDP	IV. Industrial Sector

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) II I IV III

(2) II IV I III

(3) II I III IV

(4) III I IV II

70. Which of the following is not included in the National Income ?

(1) Wages and Salaries

(2) Tax Revenue

(3) Interest Receipts from Public Debt

(4) Profits of Public Sector Undertakings

71. Match the following :

List I	List II
a. Iron and Steel Industry	I. Perambur
b. Jute Industry	II. Jamshedpur
c. Oil Refinery	III. Kolkata
d. Integral Coach Factory	IV. Barauni

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) II III IV I

(2) III IV I II

(3) IV II I III

(4) III I IV II

72. When the Central Bank increases the Cash Reserve Ratio, it leads to

I. Fall in money circulation.

II. Low demand for goods and services.

III. Rise in purchasing power of the people.

IV. Rise in bank’s lending capacity.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, III and IV

(2) I and II only

(3) I, II and III

(4) I, II and IV

73. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is to be maintained by banks in the form of

I. Cash.

II. Gold.

III. Unencumbered investments in specified instruments.

IV. Priority sector loans.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

II, III and IV

I, III and IV

I, II and IV

I, II and III

74. Gilt edged market comprises

(1) Treasury Bills and Government Bond Market.

(2) Mutual Fund Market.

(3) Derivatives Market.

(4) Capital Market.

75. Non-Performing Asset as per the current banking norms is

(1) A loan which is due during the last 90 days.

(2) A loan whose instalment of principal and interest amount has remained overdue for a period of 90 days.

(3) A loan whose instalment of principal amount is overdue for a period of 90 days.

(4) A loan whose instalment of interest amount is overdue for a period of 90 days.

76. Name of the committee on Indian banking and financial sector reforms constituted by the Government of India in 1991 is

(1) Suresh Tendulkar Committee

(2) Committee on Financial Stability

(3) Committee on Financial System

(4) Raja J. Chelliah Committee

77. Para Banking Services include the following:

I. Credit card business

II. Insurance business

III. Credit to para military personnel

IV. Factoring services

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and III

(4) I, III and IV

78.Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) :

Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in 2017 is non-inflationary.

Reason (R) :

GST system avoids tax-on-tax.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

79.Match the following :

List I	List II
a. 10th Finance Commission	I. K. C. Pant
b. 11th Finance Commission	II. A. M. Khusro
c. 12th Finance Commission	III. C. Rangarajan
d. 13th Finance Commission	IV. Vijay L. Kelkar

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b ) (c ) (d)

(1) II I IV III

(2) II IV I III

(3) IV II III I

(4) I IV II III

80. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) :

Budget Deficit financed by printing currency will lead to price rise.

Reason (R) :

More goods will be produced in the economy.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(2) (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

81. Part V of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act deals with

(1) High Court.

(2) Apportionment of Assets and Liabilities.

(3) Authorisation of Expenditure and Distribution of Revenues.

(4) Management and Development of Water Resources.

82. Polavaram Project is a

(1) State Project funded by the Central Government.

(2) State Project funded by funds of the State of Andhra Pradesh.

(3) State Project funded by the States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

(4) National Project.

83. How many Schedules are there in the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act ?

(1) 13 Schedules

(2) 14 Schedules

(3) 15 Schedules

(4) 16 Schedules

84.Apex Council of Godavari and Krishna river water resources and their management consists of

(1) Minister of Water Resources, Government of India as chairperson and Ministers of Irrigation of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

(2) Prime Minister, Government of India as chairperson and Ministers of Irrigation of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

(3) Minister of Water Resources, Government of India as chairperson and Ministers of Revenue of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

(4) Minister of Water resources, Government of India as chairperson and Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

85.Government of Andhra Pradesh is implementing YSR Rythu Bharosa – PM Kisan Scheme for the benefit of farmers of Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the following statements are correct about the above scheme ?

(1) ₹ 13,500 is given to a farmer's family in three instalments every year.

(2) ₹ 7,000 is given by Government of Andhra Pradesh and ₹ 6,000 is given by the Government of India.

(3) ₹ 6,000 is given by Government of Andhra Pradesh and ₹ 7,000 is given by the Government of India.

(4) ₹ 13,000 is given to a farmer's family in four instalments every year.

86. One of the following welfare programmes implemented by Government of Andhra Pradesh is not part of Navaratnalu.

(1) Housing for all Poor

(2) YSR Jala Yagnam

(3) Aarogyasri

(4) Vahana Mitra

87. The following App developed by Government of Andhra Pradesh is an SOS service for women in distress or danger.

(1) Spandana

(2) Bharosa

(3) Disha

(4) Prajwala

88. The CCRC introduced by Government of Andhra Pradesh stands for

(1) Crop Certification Residue Control to certify organic farming.

(2) Crop Cultivation Registration on Certificate for pledging lands for bank loan.

(3) Crop Cultivator Rights Card for providing assistance to lease-holders.

(4) None of the above

89. Areawise, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh is the smallest ?

(1) Parvathipuram Manyam

(2) Palnadu

(3) Annamayya

(4) Kurnool

90. Who among the following is a heavyweight weightlifting champion who hails from Andhra Pradesh ?

(1) Sathish Sivalingam

(2) Kunjarani Devi

(3) Dhruva Chakravarthi

(4) Dandamudi Rajagopal Rao

91. Consider the following statement and answer the question.

Statement:

It took more than a million years for the world human population to attain the one billion mark. But it took only 12 years for it to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion.

Which of the following time period can be represented from the statement?

(1) 1950 – 1963

(2) 2008 – 2021

(3) 1987 – 1999

(4) 1990 – 2012

92. According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, how many Scheduled Tribes are notified in the State of Andhra Pradesh?

(1) 31

(2) 33

(3) 35

(4) 29

93. As per Census of India 2011, which of the following group of States and Union Territories does not have Scheduled Caste Population?

(1) Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Lakshadweep

(2) Nagaland, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Mizoram

(3) Nagaland, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh

(4) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Tripura, Mizoram

94. Match the following (Sex Ratio) :

List I	List II
a. Puducherry	I. 993
b. Tamil Nadu	II. 1037
c. Lakshadweep	III. 996
d. Andhra Pradesh	IV. 946

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

a b c d

(1) I II IV III

(2) II I IV III

(3) II III IV I

(4) I II III IV

95. What percentage of rail routes were electrified in India by March 2019?

(1) 45%

(2) 50.91%

(3) 75.90%

(4) 62.12%

96. Match the following Coal-based Thermal Power Stations and their States:

List I (Thermal Power Station)	List II (State)
a. Kudgi	I. Chhattisgarh
b. Kahalgaon	II. Karnataka
c. Sipat	III. U.P.
d. Dadri	IV. Bihar

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) I II III IV

(2) II IV I III

(3) IV II III I

(4) II IV III I

97. Match the following :

Methods of Agricultural Regionalisation	Agricultural Geographer
a. Crop combination	I. Weaver, Doi
b. Crop diversification	II. Bhatia, Jasbir Singh
c. Crop concentration	III. Chisholm, Bhatia
d. Agricultural productivity	IV. Kendall, Majid Husain, Jasbir Singh

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) III II IV I

(2) I II III IV

(3) III II I IV

(4) I II IV III

98. Which of the following type of grassland separates Cold Asia from Dry Asia ?

(1) Steppe

(2) Taiga

(3) Tundra

(4) Prairie

99. According to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, which of the following is the most appropriate sequence which shows the degree of protection between different forest types ?

(1) Reserved Forest > Protected Forest > Village Forest

(2) Protected Forest > Reserved Forest > Village Forest

(3) Reserved Forest > Village Forest > Protected Forest

(4) Village Forest > Protected Forest > Reserved Forest

100. Which of the following indicator species are not found in Srivenkateshwara National Park of Andhra Pradesh ?

(1) Wood stork

(2) Cycas beddomei

(3) Red sanders

(4) Slender loris

101. Which of the following is the first pipeline constructed in India for the transportation of crude oil ?

(1) Mumbai High – Koyali

(2) Hajira – Bijapur – Jagdishpur

(3) Naharkatia – Nunmati – Barauni

(4) Jamnagar – Loni

102. Andhra Pradesh is the sole producer of

(1) Barytes

(2) Apatite

(3) Iron ore

(4) Granite

103. Which of the following factors are responsible for the higher Sugarcane production in tropical regions as compared to sub-tropical regions of India ?

I. Cool nights with clear skies

II. Latitudinal position

III. Long hours of sunshine

IV. High temperature disparity

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I and II only

(2) I, II and III only

(3) I, III and IV only

(4) II, III and IV only

104. Who among the following made the first attempt to demarcate Indian Agriculture into 4 macro regions ?

(1) Sengupta

(2) Sdasyuk

(3) Jasbir Singh

(4) Sengupta and Sdasyuk

105. Which among the following statements are true about Indian Steel Industry ?

I. India is the second largest producer of steel in the word.

II. Indian steel industry produced 51.89 Million Tonnes crude steel with 5.1% share in the total world production.

III. The production of steel in the year 2020 is more than the previous year.

IV. India is ranked first in the production of crude steel.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I and III

(2) I, II and III

(3) I and II

(4) I and IV

106. Match the following Geographical Heritage Sites with the States (location) :

Geographical Heritage Sites	States
a. Lonar Lake	I. Odisha
b. Siwalik Fossil Park	II. Rajasthan
c. Akal Wood Fossil Park	III. Maharashtra
d. Pillow Lava at Nomira	IV. Himachal Pradesh

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) I II III IV

(2) III IV II I

(3) II IV III I

(4) III IV I II

107. Which of the following geographical series is *not* related to Vindhyan system ?

(1) Bhander Series

(2) Bijawar Series

(3) Khondalite Series

(4) Kaimur Series

108. Which of the following are a result of depositional activity of the Himalayan rivers ?

I. River Terraces

II. Braided Channels

III. Alluvial Fans

IV. National Levees

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

(1) I and II only

(2) II, III and IV only

(3) I, II and III only

(4) I, II, III and IV

109. Which of the following Southern States shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian States?

(1) Telangana

(2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Tamil Nadu

110. A location, Place-A, is situated at 60 Degrees West longitude. Another location, Place-B, is situated at 90 Degrees East longitude. If the local time at Place-A is 10:00 AM, what is the local time at Place-B?

(1) 8 PM

(2) 10 PM

(3) 12 PM

(4) 6 PM

111. Consider the following statements regarding India :

I. India has an area of 3.28 million sq km, and accounts for about 2.4 percent of the total geographical area of the world.

II. The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4′ N and 37°6′ N and longitude 68°7′ E and 97°25′ EIII.

III. Presently India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) I only

(2) I and II only

(3) I and III only

(4) I, II and III

112. Match the following Irrigation Projects and their States (location) :

Irrigation Projects	States
a. Parwan Multipurpose Project	I. Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
b. Renukaji Dam Project	II. Uttarakhand
c. Lakhwar Multipurpose Project	III. Himachal Pradesh
d. Ken-Betwa Link Project	IV. Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) I II III IV

(2) IV III II I

(3) II IV III I

(4) III IV II I

113. Match the following Tiger Reserves with their States (location) :

Tiger Reserves	States
a. Periyar	I. Chhattisgarh
b. Sariska	II. Rajasthan
c. Buxa	III. West Bengal
d. Indravati	IV. Kerala

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) I II III IV

(2) IV II I III

(3) IV II III I

(4) IV III II I

114. Phlogopite and Pegmatite minerals are related to

(1) Petroleum

(2) Mica

(3) Iron ore

(4) Gold

115. Which of the following is currently the biggest Thermal Power Plant (with an installed capacity of 4,760 MW) in India?

(1) Mundra Thermal Power Station, Gujarat

(2) The Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station, Madhya Pradesh

(3) Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant, Madhya Pradesh

(4) Talcher Super Thermal Power Station, Odisha

116. The greatest variety (diversity) of animal and plant species can be found in

(1) Tropical Moist Forests

(2) Temperate Deciduous Forests

(3) Taiga Region

(4) Deserts and Savannas

117. Seasonal differences are maximum in

(1) Mid Latitudes

(2) High Latitudes

(3) Low Latitudes

(4) Subtropics

118. What is the proper river order from North to South ?

(1) Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Sutlej, Beas

(2) Jhelum, Chenab, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej

(3) Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej

(4) Chenab, Jhelum, Beas, Ravi, Sutlej

119. Naupada Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Area (ICMBA) is located in the district of

(1) Srikakulam

(2) Vijayanagaram

(3) Alluri Sitharama Raju

(4) Visakhapatnam

120. Arrange the following constituents of the atmosphere in descending order (in terms of their quantity):

(1) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Co2

(2) Co2, Argon, Oxygen, Nitrogen

(3) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Co2, Argon

(4) Argon, Co2, Nitrogen, Oxygen

2022 PYQ’s EXPLANATION

1) Correct Answer: (3) Chanhudaro

Industrial Hub: Chanhudaro is famously known as the "Lancashire of India" because it was a specialized center for craft production, specifically bead-making, shell-cutting, and seal-making.

Archaeological Evidence: Excavations revealed a large number of finished and unfinished beads, copper tools, and a specialized bead-making factory with kilns.

Materials Used: Craftsmen here used diverse materials like carnelian, jasper, crystal, steatite, and metals to create intricate beads that were highly valued for trade.

Why others are wrong: While Dholavira was known for water management and Suktagendor for maritime trade, Chanhudaro was the primary industrial workshop for small-scale manufacturing.

2) Correct Answer: (1) I, II and III only

Statement I: Dyus (Dyaus Pita) was the sky god, representing the oldest celestial deity and serving as the Indian counterpart to the Greek Zeus or Roman Jupiter.

Statement II: Prithvi was personified as Mother Earth and considered the female counterpart to Dyus; together they were viewed as the universal parents.

Statement III: Agni (Fire God) was the vital "priest of the gods," acting as a messenger who carried sacrificial offerings from the earthly realm to the heavens.

Statement IV: This is incorrect because the cow was held in high esteem as Aghanya (not to be killed); Rig Vedic worship primarily involved milk, ghee, and grain.

3) Correct Answer: (2) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

a-II (Sankhya): Founded by Kapila, it posits that the universe is a result of the interaction between Prakriti (matter) and Purusha (consciousness).

b-III (Vaisheshika): This school, founded by Kanada, introduced the Atomic Theory, stating that the physical world is composed of indivisible atoms (Anu).

c-IV (Lokayata): Also known as Charvaka, it is a purely materialistic philosophy that rejects the Vedas, the soul, and anything not perceivable by the senses.

d-I (Ajivika): A heterodox school that advocated Niyati (Fatalism), the belief that everything is predetermined and human effort has no impact on destiny.

4) Correct Answer: (1) Mahapadmananda

Historical Record: The inscription in the Udayagiri hills mentions that a canal, excavated by King Nanda 300 years prior, was extended by Kharavela.

Significance: This provides rare archaeological evidence of the Nanda Dynasty’s territorial expansion into Kalinga (modern Odisha) before the Mauryas.

Economic Policy: It proves that early Magadhan rulers like Mahapadmananda prioritized large-scale public works and irrigation to support the agrarian economy.

Kharavela's Legacy: The inscription serves as the primary source for the life of the Mahameghavahana king, detailing his military victories and civic contributions.

5) Correct Answer: (1) 1, 2 and 3 only

Statement 1: Ashoka's edicts utilized a multilingual approach: Brahmi (most regions), Kharosthi (Northwest), and Greek/Aramaic (Afghanistan) to ensure his message reached diverse populations.

Statement 2: While most edicts use the title Devanampiya Priyadarsin, the personal name 'Ashoka' appears only in the Maski (Karnataka) and Gurjara (MP) inscriptions, confirming his identity.

Statement 3: The Major Rock Edict XIII is crucial as it lists five Greek kings (like Antiochus and Ptolemy) as his contemporaries, helping historians establish accurate Mauryan chronology.

Statement 4: This is incorrect; the edicts generally focus on Dhamma, social welfare, and the Kalinga war. There is no mention of a "war of succession" with his brothers in his stone inscriptions

6) Correct answer is Option (3): a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II.

Prajnaparamita (Acharya Nagarjuna): A foundational Mahayana Buddhist text. Nagarjuna is the father of the Madhyamaka (Middle Way) philosophy.

Samayasara (Acharya Kundakunda): A premier spiritual text of the Digambara Jain tradition, focusing on the essence of the self.

Lilavati Parinayam (Kuthuhala): A famous Prakrit work detailing the marriage of the Satavahana King Hala.

Katantra Vyakaranam (Sarvavarma): A simplified Sanskrit grammar written during the Satavahana period to make the language accessible to the royalty.

7) The correct answer is Option (2).

Explanation:

Autonomous Nature: Guilds (Srenis) during the Gupta period were highly autonomous bodies with their own rules, regulations, and administrative structures. They were not controlled by the state; rather, the king was expected to respect and uphold the laws of the guilds.

Minting Coins: Major guilds were empowered to issue their own coinage and seals, reflecting their economic independence.

Armed Bodies: To protect their goods and caravans during transit, guilds often maintained their own small private militias or armed bodies.

Banking Functions: Guilds acted as bankers, receiving long-term deposits and providing loans to both members and the public at set interest rates.

8) The correct answer is Option (1).

Explanation:

Gargi Samhita: This astronomical treatise contains a section called the Yuga Purana, which explicitly mentions the Yavana (Greek) invasion that reached Pataliputra during the Sunga period.

Patanjali’s Mahabhashya: Patanjali was a contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga. He uses the Greek siege of Saketa (Ayodhya) and Madhyamika as grammatical examples (e.g., "The Yavana was besieging Saketa"), confirming the invasion occurred during his time.

Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra: This drama provides historical details about a conflict between Pushyamitra’s grandson, Vasumitra, and a Greek force on the banks of the Sindhu River.

Visakhadatta’s Mudrarakshasa: This play focuses on the rise of Chandragupta Maurya and the machinations of Chanakya; it does not deal with the reign of Pushyamitra Sunga or the Greek invasions of that later period.

9) The correct answer is Option (3).

Explanation:

Silabhadra as Chancellor: During Harshavardhana's reign, the renowned scholar Silabhadra was the head (Chancellor) of Nalanda when the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang visited.

Village Donations: Harsha donated the revenue of 100 villages (not 10,000) for the university's upkeep.

Teacher Count: There were approximately 1,500 teachers and 10,000 students; 15,000 teachers is historically inaccurate.

Medium of Instruction: The primary medium was Sanskrit, which had replaced Pali as the language of advanced Buddhist academic discourse.

10) The correct answer is Option (1).

Explanation:

Navidadere — Tax on Barbers: A specific professional tax levied on barbers during the medieval period in South India (Vijayanagara/Chola era).

Melivamsam — Tax on Ploughs: An agricultural tax based on the number of ploughs owned by a farmer.

Manevana — Tax on Houses: A residential tax or house tax collected from the occupants of a house.

Tudimeya — Tax on Marriage: A social tax collected by the state during marriage ceremonies.

11.The correct answer is Option (2).

Explanation:

Ravan ki Khai (Cave 14): One of the earliest Hindu excavations at Ellora, dating back to the late 6th or early 7th century CE.

Dashavatara (Cave 15): Begun as a Buddhist cave but completed as a Hindu temple under the Rashtrakuta King Dantidurga (mid-8th century CE).

Dumar Lena (Cave 29): A large, complex excavation representing a transitional style, generally dated to the late 7th or early 8th century CE.

Kailasanatha (Cave 16): The most advanced monolithic structure, built by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the late 8th century CE.

12.The correct answer is Option (3).

Explanation:

Variyam — Committee system: The village assemblies (Sabha) were divided into specialized committees called Variyams (e.g., Garden Committee, Tank Committee) to handle specific administrative tasks.

Kudumba — Ward: For election purposes, the village was divided into 30 wards or units known as Kudumbus.

Kudavolai — Lottery system: The unique Chola method of electing committee members by drawing palm-leaf slips from a pot (Kuda = pot, Olai = leaf).

Perumakkal — Member of the village assembly: The elected elders or great men who served as members of the village committees were known as Variya-perumakkal.

13.The correct answer is Option (1).

Explanation:

Orugallu – Tripuranthakam – Nellore: This was a vital trade route connecting the Kakatiya capital (Orugallu/Warangal) to the southern provinces and the coast, passing through the significant religious and administrative center of Tripuranthakam.

Dwarasamudra – Ballari – Orugallu: This highway connected the Kakatiya kingdom with the Hoysala kingdom (capital at Dwarasamudra). It served as a major artery for inter-state commerce and military movement between the Deccan powers.

Motupalli Connection: While Motupalli was the most famous Kakatiya port (re-established by Ganapati Deva), the specific highway configuration listed in Statement III is not historically recognized as a primary named highway.

Palnadu Route: Statement IV contains geographical inconsistencies regarding the standard highway alignments documented in Kakatiya inscriptions and literary works like Krida-bhiramamu.

14.The correct answer is Option (1).

Explanation:

Monotheism: Both movements emphasized the unity of God and the belief in a single supreme being, moving away from complex rituals toward personal devotion.

Asceticism: Both traditions stressed simplicity, detachment from worldly pleasures, and self-discipline as a means to achieve spiritual proximity to God.

Religious Tolerance: Both movements promoted communal harmony and criticized orthodox bigotry, seeking to bridge the gap between different religious communities.

Idol Worship: While some Bhakti saints (Saguna) accepted idol worship, the Sufi movement strictly rejected it (Shirk). Since it was not a common feature, statement IV is incorrect.

15. The correct answer is Option (4).

Explanation:

Nikitin: Athanasius Nikitin was a Russian merchant who visited South India (specifically the Bahmani Kingdom) in the 15th century (c. 1469–1472). He did not visit during the reign of Achyuta Devaraya (who ruled from 1529–1542).

Abdur Razzaq: An ambassador from Persia who visited Vijayanagara during the reign of Devaraya II (1442–1443) and left a glowing account of the city.

Domingo Paes: A Portuguese traveler who visited during the peak of the empire under Krishna Devaraya (c. 1520–1522).

Caesar Frederic: An Italian traveler who visited Vijayanagara around 1567, shortly after the empire's defeat in the Battle of Rakshasa Tangadi (Talikota) in 1565.

16. The correct answer is Option (2).

Explanation:

Venkatapati Raya II: He was the most powerful ruler of the Aravidu dynasty (reigned 1586–1614) and shifted the capital to Chandragiri.

Jesuit Relations: He maintained a friendly diplomatic relationship with the Portuguese. In 1604, he formally permitted Jesuit missionaries to build churches and reside in Chandragiri and Vellore.

Religious Tolerance: Despite being a staunch Vaishnavite, he continued the Vijayanagara tradition of secularism, allowing freedom of worship to Christians and interacting frequently with Jesuit scholars like Father Ricci.

17.The correct answer is Option (4).

Statement I: The fifth Sikh Guru, Arjan Dev, was executed in 1606 on Jahangir's orders for supporting the rebel prince Khusrau.

Statement II: In 1615, Jahangir successfully ended the long-standing conflict with Mewar when Rana Amar Singh submitted to Mughal suzerainty.

Statement IV: The English East India Company arrived at Jahangir's court; Captain William Hawkins (1608) and Sir Thomas Roe (1615) secured trading rights.

Statement III (Incorrect): Kabul was already an established Mughal province under Akbar. Kandahar was actually lost to the Persians in 1622 during Jahangir’s reign.

18. The correct answer is Option (1).

Explanation:

Amalguzar — Revenue Collector in-charge of a District: The primary officer responsible for assessing and collecting land revenue at the district (Sarkar) level.

Karkuns — Accountant: Clerks or accountants who assisted in maintaining the financial records of the revenue department.

Qanungo — Kept records of the revenue payable by the villages: An hereditary officer who maintained local land and revenue records and served as a repository of local customs and rates.

Bitikchi — Prepared the seasonal crop statistics: A writer or registrar who maintained detailed accounts of the nature of the soil, crops sown, and seasonal statistics to help in revenue assessment.

19. The correct answer is Option (2).

Explanation:

Indus to Sonargaon: Known as the Sadak-e-Azam (Great Trunk Road), it spanned approximately 2,500 km, connecting the Indus River in the west to Sonargaon in Bengal (present-day Bangladesh) in the east.

Modern Identity: This historic highway still exists today as a major artery of the Indian subcontinent, largely corresponding to the Grand Trunk (GT) Road.

Other Routes: Sher Shah also built roads from Agra to Burhanpur, Agra to Chittor, and Lahore to Multan, but the Indus-Sonargaon route was his longest and most significant achievement.

20. The correct answer is Option (3).

India at the Death of Akbar — Moreland: W.H. Moreland’s classic economic study of the Mughal Empire’s resources and population at the end of Akbar's rule.

The Agrarian System of Mughal India — Irfan Habib: A seminal work by the Aligarh historian detailing land revenue, peasant relations, and administrative structures.

Travels in the Mogul Empire — François Bernier: The primary account of a French physician who lived in the Mughal court during the reigns of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb

Early Travels in India — William Foster: A comprehensive compilation of the journeys and observations of early English travelers in India (1583–1619).

21. The correct answer is Option (3)

V.A. Smith (Vincent Arthur Smith): This British historian argued in his works that the Taj Mahal was a product of "European and Asiatic genius," often citing the possible influence of Italian architects (like Geronimo Veroneo) in its design.

James Fergusson: While a prominent architectural historian, he primarily classified Indian architecture into "styles" (e.g., Saracenic) rather than emphasizing European synthesis for the Taj.

Ralph Fitch and Tavernier: Both were travelers (Fitch in the 16th century, Tavernier in the 17th) who provided descriptive accounts of Indian trade and monuments but were not professional historians theorizing on architectural origins.

22. The correct answer is Option 4

Famine Code (1883): Following the Great Famine of 1876–78, the government created this set of guidelines to define how local administrations should provide relief during future food shortages.

Vernacular Press Act (1878): A highly controversial "Gagging Act" designed to suppress criticism of British policies in non-English newspapers.

Charles Wood's Despatch (1854): A comprehensive plan that shifted the focus of Indian education toward a structured system from primary school to university.

1st Factory Act (1881): The first significant attempt at labor reform in India, specifically limiting the working hours for children under the age of 12.

23. The correct answer is Option (2).

II. Imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula (1839): He was jailed in Golkonda Fort for leading the Wahabi Conspiracy against British influence in Hyderabad, long before the 1857 revolt.

III. Disarming of Aurangabad Cavalry (June 1857): The 1st Contingent Cavalry in Aurangabad refused to march against Northern rebels; they were subsequently disarmed and arrested in the early weeks of the Great Revolt.

I. Attack of Turrebaz Khan (July 1857): On July 17, 1857, Turrebaz Khan led a defiant mob to attack the British Residency in Hyderabad to demand the release of rebel sepoys.

IV. Rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka (1858): The young ruler of Shorapur (a Nizam tributary) rose in open armed rebellion against the British in the final stages of the 1857 uprising.

24. INC Presidents and Sessions

Correct Answer: (3) IV, I, III, II

a. Dadabhai Naoroji — IV. Calcutta (1886): He was the first non-Hindu President of the INC.

b. Badruddin Tyabji — I. Madras (1887): He was the first Muslim President of the INC.

c. George Yule — III. Allahabad (1888): He was the first European (British) President of the INC.

d. William Wedderburn — II. Bombay (1889): A former ICS officer and supporter of Indian self-rule.

25. Gandhi's Translation

Correct Answer: (1) John Ruskin – Unto This Last

Sarvodaya: In 1908, Gandhiji translated Ruskin's book into Gujarati. The title Sarvodaya means "Progress for all."

Impact: This book fundamentally shifted Gandhi's views on the dignity of manual labor and the importance of a subsistence-based communal economy.

26. Newspapers and Associated Persons

Correct Answer: (1) II, III, I, IV

a. Indian Sociologist — II. Shyamji Krishna Varma: Published from London; a key organ for Indian revolutionaries abroad.

b. Islamic Fraternity — III. Muhammad Barkatullah: Published from Tokyo; it advocated for pan-Islamic unity against British imperialism.

c. The Talwar — I. Virendra Chattopadhyay: Also known as Madir's Talwar, it was an important revolutionary journal in Europe.

d. Swadesh Sevak — IV. G.D. Kumar: A Gurmukhi newspaper started in Vancouver to address the grievances of Indian immigrants and soldiers.

27. Idea of Constituent Assembly

Correct Answer: (4) M.N. Roy

Origin: The pioneer of the Communist movement in India, M.N. Roy, first proposed the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934.

Formal Adoption: It became an official demand of the Indian National Congress in 1935 and was eventually accepted by the British in the August Offer of 1940.

28. Authors and Their Works

Correct Answer: (1) II, IV, I, III

a. Al-Biruni — II. Tahqiq-i-Hind: A monumental 11th-century study of Indian culture, religion, and science.

b. Minhaj-us-Siraj — IV. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri: A general history of the Islamic world written in Persian, focusing on the Delhi Sultanate.

c. Ziauddin Barani — I. Tariqh-i-Firoz Shahi: An essential source for the reigns of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq to the early years of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

d. Ibn Battuta — III. The Rihla: A famous travelogue detailing his journey across the Islamic world and his time in the court of Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

29. Institutions and the Non-Cooperation Movement

Correct Answer: (4) I and IV only

Explanation:

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922) prompted a boycott of British-aided schools, leading to the establishment of several "National" educational institutions.

I. Besant Theosophical College (Incorrect): Established in 1915 by Annie Besant, well before the movement.

II. Jamia Millia Islamia (Correct): Founded in 1920 at Aligarh (later shifted to Delhi) as a product of the movement.

III. Kashi Vidyapith (Correct): Founded in 1921 by Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta and Bhagwan Das to provide indigenous education.

IV. Aligarh Muslim University (Incorrect): While the movement saw a breakaway group form Jamia Millia, the AMU Act was passed in 1920 to transform the existing Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College (founded 1875) into a University; it remained a government-recognized institution and was not a "National" school born of the boycott.

30. Introduction of the Indian Independence Bill

Correct Answer: (3) 4th July, 1947

Explanation:

Introduction: Prime Minister Clement Attlee introduced the Indian Independence Bill in the British House of Commons on July 4, 1947.

Speedy Passage: The bill was passed with remarkable speed, receiving Royal Assent on July 18, 1947.

Outcome: This Act provided for the creation of two independent dominions—India and Pakistan—effective from August 15, 1947.

Polity

31. State Finance Commission

Correct Answer: (2) I, II and III

Statement I: Under Articles 243-I and 243-Y, the Governor is required to appoint a Finance Commission every five years.

Statement II: It recommends the principles for distributing revenue between the State and local bodies (Panchayats/Municipalities) and the determination of taxes/fees assigned to them.

Statement III: Article 243-I specifically deals with the constitution of the commission to review the financial position of Panchayats.

32. Reservation in Jobs and Admissions

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

77th Amendment (1995): Provided for reservation in promotion for SCs and STs.

81st Amendment (2000): Introduced the "carry forward" rule for unfilled reserved vacancies.

82nd Amendment (2000): Provided for relaxation in qualifying marks/standards for SCs/STs in promotions.

33. Executive Power of the President

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Article 53 of the Constitution explicitly states that the executive power of the Union is vested in the President. The Reason (R) is the literal text of the Constitutional provision that defines the scope of Assertion (A).

34. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

Correct Answer: (3) I, III, IV and V

I & V: It is a statutory body established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.

III: It is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure but is guided by the principles of natural justice.

IV: Its jurisdiction covers All-India Services and Central Civil Services.

II (Incorrect): Members are drawn from both Administrative and Judicial backgrounds, not just administrative.

35. Powers of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: (4) The Speaker will preside when a resolution for his removal is under consideration.

Explanation: This statement is incorrect (and thus the answer). According to Article 181, the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) cannot preside over a sitting of the House while a resolution for their own removal is being considered, though they have the right to speak and take part in proceedings.

36. Powers of the Election Commission

Correct Answer: (2) I and III only

I: The EC has full control over the election process from notification to results.

III: During elections, government officers are on deputation to the EC and work under its control.

II (Incorrect): The EC can order the transfer of officials to ensure fair elections, but it does not have the power to dismiss government officials; that remains the power of the executive.

37. Autonomy of the Supreme Court

Correct Answer: (1) I and III only

I: The President must consult the Judiciary (Collegium system) for appointments.

III: Salaries and pensions are non-votable (charged on the Consolidated Fund of India) to prevent legislative interference.

II (Incorrect): Judges can only be removed by the President following an address by Parliament (Impeachment-like process); the Chief Justice has no power to remove other judges.

38. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

Correct Answer: (2) II and III

Explanation: Under Article 131, Original Jurisdiction covers disputes between the Centre and States or between two/one States.

II is incorrect because election disputes are handled by High Courts first (Representation of the People Act).

III is incorrect because the Constitution mentions "States," and Union Territories are not considered "States" for the purpose of Article 131.

39. Powers of National Commission for SCs

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

Explanation: Under Article 338, the Commission has the powers of a Civil Court while investigating. This includes summoning witnesses, requiring discovery of documents, and receiving evidence on affidavits.

40. Composition of Parliament

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses. The President is an integral part because no bill can become law without his assent, even though he is not a member of either House.

41. Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)

Correct Answer: (3) II, III and IV

Explanation: Statement I ("protect weaker sections from social injustice") is a Directive Principle (Article 46), not a Fundamental Duty. Duties II, III, and IV are explicitly listed under Article 51A.

42. Entry for Institutions of National Importance

Correct Answer: (1) Entry 64

Explanation: Entry 64 of the Union List deals with scientific/technical institutions financed by the Govt of India and declared of national importance. (Note: Entry 66 deals with coordination/standards in higher education).

43. Quote on India's Culture

Correct Answer: (1) Carl Friedrich

Explanation: Carl J. Friedrich, a noted political theorist, described India's unique federal and cultural complexity in these specific terms to highlight that it defies western definitions of a "nation-state."

44. Rights Denied to Aliens

Correct Answer: (2) I, II and IV only

Explanation: Fundamental Rights available only to citizens (denied to aliens) are Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30. Articles 23 and 24 (against exploitation) are available to both citizens and foreigners.

45. Preamble Statements (Incorrect)

Correct Answer: (3) I and III only

Explanation: * I is incorrect: The Preamble was enacted after the rest of the Constitution to ensure it was in conformity with it.

III is incorrect: The Preamble is non-justiciable (not enforceable in court).

Statements II and IV are correct.

46. PM CARES for Children Scheme

Correct Answer: (1) Both I and II

Explanation: Launched in May 2021, it provides a corpus of ₹10 lakh to children who lost parents to Covid-19, including education and health insurance support.

47. Education and Child Labour Articles

Correct Answer: (2) Articles 21A and 24

Explanation: Article 21A provides for free and compulsory education (6-14 years). Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 in factories/hazardous work.

48. Statements regarding GST

Correct Answer: (3) II and III only

Explanation: GST is an indirect tax, so Statement I is incorrect. It was the 122nd Amendment Bill (101st Act) and is a destination-based consumption tax.

49. Distribution of Net Proceeds of Taxes

Correct Answer: (2) Finance Commission of India

Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends the vertical and horizontal distribution of taxes between the Centre and States.

50. Not a Function of NC for SCs

Correct Answer: (2) To submit the report to the Prime Minister

Explanation: The Commission submits its annual report to the President of India, not the Prime Minister. The President then places it before Parliament.

51. Not a Function of UPSC

Correct Answer: (4) Manner of reservation

Explanation: The UPSC is consulted on recruitment, disciplinary matters, and promotions, but the manner of reservation (quotas) is a policy matter decided by the Executive/Government, not the UPSC.

52. 11th Schedule Subjects (Panchayats)

Correct Answer: (3) I, II, III and V

Explanation: The 11th Schedule (29 subjects) includes Women/Child Development, PDS, Libraries, and Markets/Fairs. Slum Improvement (IV) is a subject under the 12th Schedule (Municipalities).

53. National Green Tribunal (NGT)

Correct Answer: (1) I only

Statement I (Correct): It was established on October 18, 2010, under the NGT Act, 2010, for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.

Statement II (Incorrect): NGT is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; it is guided by principles of natural justice.

Statement III (Incorrect): There are five places of sitting: New Delhi (Principal) and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai (Zonal).

54. NHRC (Amendment) Act, 2019

Correct Answer: (3) I, II and III

Statement I (Correct): Previously, only a retired CJI could be Chairperson; now, a retired Judge of the Supreme Court is also eligible.

Statement II (Correct): The term was reduced from five years to three years (or until the age of 70).

Statement III (Correct): The amendment removed the five-year restriction on re-appointment, making members/chairpersons eligible for another term.

55. National Commission for Minorities

Correct Answer: (4) I and III only

Statement I (Correct): It is a statutory body established under the NCM Act, 1992.

Statement II (Incorrect): The Ministry has notified six religious communities (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians/Parsis, and Jains—added in 2014).

Statement III (Correct): It monitors the working of safeguards and makes recommendations to the Central/State governments.

56. Chicago Convention

Correct Answer: (2) Civil Aviation

Explanation: The Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944), known as the Chicago Convention, established the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) and defined the core principles for international air travel and safety.

57. Competition Commission of India (CCI)

Correct Answer: (1) I only

Statement I (Correct): Established under the Competition Act, 2002, to prevent practices having an adverse effect on competition.

Statement II (Incorrect): As per the Act, it consists of a Chairperson and not less than two and not more than six members. (Currently, it is a Chairperson and three members).

58. Establishment of NABARD

Correct Answer: (1) Sivaraman Committee

Explanation: NABARD was set up on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee (CRAFICARD) to oversee rural credit and agricultural development.

Santhanam: Anti-corruption (CVC).

Sarkaria/Rajamannar: Centre-State relations.

59. World Competitiveness Index

Correct Answer: (1) Institute for Management Development (IMD)

Explanation: Published annually by the IMD Business School, it ranks nations on their ability to create and maintain an environment that sustains the competitiveness of enterprises. (Note: The Global Competitiveness Report is released by the WEF).

60. Kautilya’s Arthashastra: Dandapala

Correct Answer: (3) Officer of the Army Department

Explanation: In the 18 Tirthas (officials) of the Mauryan administration:

Dandapala: Head of the Police or Army resources/maintenance.

Antapala: Guardian of the frontiers.

Durgapala: Guardian of the Forts.

Pradeshta: Magistrate/Head of the criminal court.

Economy

61. Structural Change in National Income

Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation: (A) is true as India has shifted from an agrarian economy to a service-led economy. (R) is true because growth was indeed initiated (post-independence/liberalization), but growth alone doesn't explain the nature of the structural shift; factors like technological advancement and policy focus on services play a larger role.

62. Net Social Product and Social Income

Correct Answer: (2) Alfred Marshall

Explanation: Marshall defined National Income (Social Income) as the aggregate net product of, and the sole source of payment for, all the agents of production.

63. Per Capita Income and Population

Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation: Per Capita Income = National Income / Total Population. If population grows faster than National Income, the average income per person (PCI) will mathematically decrease.

64. Highest GDP Growth Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: (3) 11th Five Year Plan (2007–2012)

Explanation: The 11th Plan achieved an average growth rate of around 8%, the highest among all completed five-year plans, despite the 2008 global financial crisis.

65. Feature of MGNREGS

Correct Answer: (2) I, III and IV (Note: Based on standard options, but strictly, IV is not a feature).

Explanation: MGNREGS focuses on employment and asset creation. "Provision of nutritious food" (IV) is a feature of the ICDS or Mid-Day Meal schemes, not MGNREGS.

66. Demographic Dividend Age Group

Correct Answer: (1) 15 – 64 years

Explanation: According to international standards (UN/World Bank), the working-age population that contributes to the demographic dividend is defined as those aged 15 to 64.

67. Objectives of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao

Correct Answer: (2) II, III and IV

Explanation: The scheme focuses on preventing gender-biased sex selection (CSR), ensuring girl child survival/protection, and ensuring education/empowerment. Legal assistance (I) is not a primary objective of this specific scheme.

68. National Income and Agriculture

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation: Despite the declining share of agriculture in GDP, a large population still depends on it. Because Indian agriculture is a "gamble on the monsoons," uncertain rains directly impact rural demand and National Income.

69. Sector Matching

Correct Answer: (2) II, IV, I, III

a. Trade — II. Service Sector

b. Water Supply — IV. Industrial Sector (Utilities like electricity/water are part of Industry).

c. Fisheries — I. Primary Sector

d. GDP — III. Central Statistical Organisation (Now NSO, which calculates GDP).

70. Not included in National Income

Correct Answer: (3) Interest Receipts from Public Debt

Explanation: Interest on public debt is considered a transfer payment because it is often used for consumption purposes by the government rather than for current production of goods and services.

71. Industry Matching

Correct Answer: (1) II, III, IV, I

a. Iron and Steel — II. Jamshedpur (TISCO)

b. Jute Industry — III. Kolkata (Hooghly river belt)

c. Oil Refinery — IV. Barauni (Bihar)

d. Integral Coach Factory — I. Perambur (Tamil Nadu)

72. Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

Correct Answer: (2) I and II only

Explanation: High CRR means banks must keep more cash with the RBI. This reduces their lending capacity (IV is wrong), leads to a fall in money circulation (I), and consequently lowers demand (II).

73. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III

Explanation: SLR must be maintained by banks in the form of liquid assets like Cash, Gold, or Government Securities (unencumbered investments). Priority sector loans (IV) are a separate lending mandate.

74. Gilt-edged Market

Correct Answer: (1) Treasury Bills and Government Bond Market.

Explanation: "Gilt-edged" means high-grade investment bonds issued by a government; they are considered risk-free.

75. Non-Performing Asset (NPA)

Correct Answer: (2) A loan whose instalment of principal and interest amount has remained overdue for a period of 90 days.

Explanation: This is the standard RBI definition for a loan to be classified as an NPA in commercial banking.

76. Banking Reforms Committee 1991

Correct Answer: (3) Committee on Financial System

Explanation: This is the famous Narasimham Committee I, which laid the foundation for modern banking reforms in India.

77. Para Banking Services

Correct Answer: (1) I, II and IV

Explanation: Para-banking refers to activities done by banks apart from day-to-day banking (deposits/withdrawals), such as Credit Cards, Insurance, and Factoring. Lending to military personnel (III) is a regular banking function.

78. GST and Inflation

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation: GST is non-inflationary because it eliminates the cascading effect (tax-on-tax), which reduces the overall tax burden on the final consumer.

79. Finance Commission Chairmen

Correct Answer: (2) II, IV, I, III

a. 10th FC — II. K.C. Pant

b. 11th FC — IV. A.M. Khusro

c. 12th FC — I. C. Rangarajan

d. 13th FC — III. Vijay L. Kelkar

80. Budget Deficit and Price Rise

Correct Answer: (2) (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Printing currency (Deficit Financing) increases money supply, which leads to inflation/price rise (A is true). However, (R) is false because inflation occurs when the money supply increases faster than the production of goods; it doesn't necessarily mean more goods are being produced.

81. AP Reorganisation Act – Part V

Correct Answer: (1) High Court.

Explanation: Part V (Sections 30–43) of the Act deals specifically with the High Court of Judicature at Hyderabad and the establishment of a separate High Court for the State of Andhra Pradesh.

82. Polavaram Project Status

Correct Answer: (4) National Project.

Explanation: Under Section 90 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014, the Polavaram Irrigation Project was declared a National Project. The Central Government is responsible for its execution and funding.

83. Schedules in the Act

Correct Answer: (1) 13 Schedules

Explanation: The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, consists of 108 Sections grouped into 12 Parts and a total of 13 Schedules.

84. Apex Council Composition

Correct Answer: (4) Minister of Water Resources as chairperson and Chief Ministers of AP and Telangana as members.

Explanation: According to Section 84 of the Act, the Apex Council is established for the supervision of the Godavari and Krishna River Management Boards. It is chaired by the Union Minister of Water Resources.

85. YSR Rythu Bharosa – PM Kisan

Correct Answer: (1) ₹ 13,500 is given to a farmer's family in three instalments every year.

Explanation: The scheme provides ₹13,500 annually. This includes ₹7,500 from the State Government and ₹6,000 from the Central Government (PM-KISAN), disbursed in three phases (May, October, and January).

86. Navaratnalu Welfare Programmes

Correct Answer: (4) Vahana Mitra

Explanation: While Vahana Mitra is a welfare scheme (providing ₹10,000 to auto/taxi drivers), it is not one of the nine flagship core schemes known as Navaratnalu. The other three listed are part of the nine.

87. SOS App for Women

Correct Answer: (3) Disha

Explanation: The Disha App was developed by the AP Police to provide an SOS service for women in distress, allowing them to alert the nearest police vehicle/station by shaking the phone or pressing a button.

88. CCRC Definition

Correct Answer: (3) Crop Cultivator Rights Card for providing assistance to lease-holders.

Explanation: The CCRC is issued to tenant farmers (lease-holders) to enable them to access institutional credit (bank loans), crop insurance, and other government benefits without affecting the land ownership rights of the landlord.

89. Smallest District (Area-wise)

Correct Answer: (1) Parvathipuram Manyam

Explanation: Following the 2022 district reorganization in Andhra Pradesh, Parvathipuram Manyam is among the smallest districts by area (approx. 3,659 sq. km). (Note: Visakhapatnam is the smallest overall, but among the given options, Parvathipuram Manyam is the smallest).

90. Weightlifting Champion

Correct Answer: (4) Dandamudi Rajagopal Rao

Explanation: Known as the "Indian Tarzan" and the "Giant of Andhra," he was a legendary heavyweight weightlifter and wrestler who represented India in the 1948 and 1952 Olympics.

91. Population Growth Timeline

Correct Answer: (3) 1987 – 1999

Explanation: The world population reached 5 billion in 1987 (Day of Five Billion) and hit 6 billion in 1999. This specific 12-year interval is frequently cited to demonstrate the era of rapid global population "explosion."

92. Notified STs in Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: (2) 33

Explanation: According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, there are 33 communities notified as Scheduled Tribes in the State of Andhra Pradesh.

93. States/UTs with No SC Population

Correct Answer: (3) Nagaland, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Per the 2011 Census, these five areas have zero notified Scheduled Caste populations. Most of these regions are predominantly tribal (ST) areas.

94. Sex Ratio Match

Correct Answer: (2) II, I, IV, III

a. Puducherry — II. 1037

b. Tamil Nadu — I. 996 (Note: Tamil Nadu is 996, AP is 993)

c. Lakshadweep — IV. 946

d. Andhra Pradesh — III. 993

95. Rail Electrification (March 2019)

Correct Answer: (2) 50.91%

Explanation: As of March 31, 2019, approximately 35,488 km out of 67,415 km of broad-gauge route kilometers were electrified, which is roughly 52% (Option 2 is the closest official figure).

96. Thermal Power Stations Match

Correct Answer: (2) II, IV, I, III

a. Kudgi — II. Karnataka (NTPC Kudgi)

b. Kahalgaon — IV. Bihar (NTPC Kahalgaon)

c. Sipat — I. Chhattisgarh (NTPC Sipat)

d. Dadri — III. U.P. (NTPC Dadri)

97. Agricultural Geographers Match

Correct Answer: (2) I, II, III, IV

a. Crop combination — I. Weaver, Doi

b. Crop diversification — II. Bhatia, Jasbir Singh

c. Crop concentration — III. Chisholm, Bhatia

d. Agricultural productivity — IV. Kendall, Majid Husain

98. Grasslands of Asia

Correct Answer: (1) Steppe

Explanation: The Steppes are vast temperate grasslands that act as a transition zone/buffer between the cold coniferous forests (Taiga) of Northern Asia and the arid/dry desert regions of Central/Southern Asia.

99. Forest Protection Sequence

Correct Answer: (1) Reserved Forest > Protected Forest > Village Forest

Explanation: Reserved Forests have the highest protection (all activities prohibited unless permitted). Protected Forests allow certain rights to locals unless prohibited. Village Forests are managed by local communities.

100. Srivenkateshwara National Park Species

Correct Answer: (1) Wood stork

Explanation: Cycas beddomei (restricted to Tirumala hills), Red Sanders (endemic to Seshachalam), and Slender Loris are key indicator species of this park. The Wood Stork is a wetland bird not typically used as an indicator species for this specific hilly forest ecosystem.

101. First Pipeline in India

Correct Answer: (3) Naharkatia – Nunmati – Barauni

Explanation: Constructed in the early 1960s, this was India's first major oil pipeline, built to transport crude oil from the Naharkatia oil fields in Assam to refineries in Nunmati (Assam) and Barauni (Bihar).

102. Sole Producer in Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: (1) Barytes

Explanation: Andhra Pradesh, particularly the Mangampet deposit in Kadapa district, is the world's largest producer of Barytes and holds nearly 92% of India's total resources, making it essentially the sole producer in the country.

103. Sugarcane Production: Tropical vs. Sub-tropical

Correct Answer: (2) I, II and III only

Explanation: Tropical regions (South India) have a longer growing season, higher sugar recovery due to the maritime influence (III), and lack of frost (I). High temperature disparity (IV) is actually a characteristic of sub-tropical North India, which is detrimental to sugarcane yield.

104. Macro Regions of Indian Agriculture

Correct Answer: (4) Sengupta and Sdasyuk

Explanation: In 1968, P. Sengupta and Galina Sdasyuk divided India into 4 Macro Agricultural Regions (Himalayan, West, Central, and East) based on rainfall, soil, and crop patterns.

105. Indian Steel Industry

Correct Answer: (3) I and II

Explanation: India is the second-largest producer of crude steel (ranking behind China). Statement II reflects official statistics from recent years. Statement IV is incorrect as China ranks first.

106. Geographical Heritage Sites Match

Correct Answer: (2) III, IV, II, I

a. Lonar Lake — III. Maharashtra (Meteorite impact crater)

b. Siwalik Fossil Park — IV. Himachal Pradesh (Saketi)

c. Akal Wood Fossil Park — II. Rajasthan (Jaisalmer)

d. Pillow Lava at Nomira — I. Odisha (Keonjhar)

107. Vindhyan System Series

Correct Answer: (3) Khondalite Series

Explanation: Bhander, Bijawar (lower), and Kaimur are all part of the Vindhyan system. Khondalite belongs to the Archaean/Dharwar system of the Eastern Ghats.

108. Depositional Activity of Himalayan Rivers

Correct Answer: (4) I, II, III and IV

Explanation: All these features (terraces, braided streams, alluvial fans, and natural levees) are formed by the deposition of sediment as rivers enter the plains or lose velocity.

109. Boundaries with Maximum States

Correct Answer: (2) Karnataka

Explanation: Karnataka shares borders with 6 states (Goa, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala). In the South, it has the highest connectivity.

110. Longitude Time Calculation

Correct Answer: (1) 8 PM

Explanation: 1. Total longitudinal difference = 60° (West) + 90° (East) = 150°.

2. Time difference = 150° × 4 minutes = 600 minutes = 10 hours.

3. Since Place-B is to the East, we add time: 10:00 AM + 10 hours = 8:00 PM.

111. India Geographical Facts

Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III

Explanation: All statements are standard geographic facts. India is the 7th largest country (3.28m sq km), spans the mentioned coordinates, and currently has 28 States and 8 UTs (post-2020).

112. Irrigation Projects Match

Correct Answer: (2) IV, III, II, I

a. Parwan Multipurpose — IV. Rajasthan

b. Renukaji Dam — III. Himachal Pradesh

c. Lakhwar Multipurpose — II. Uttarakhand

d. Ken-Betwa Link — I. MP and UP

113. Tiger Reserves Match

Correct Answer: (3) IV, II, III, I

a. Periyar — IV. Kerala

b. Sariska — II. Rajasthan

c. Buxa — III. West Bengal

d. Indravati — I. Chhattisgarh

114. Phlogopite and Pegmatite

Correct Answer: (2) Mica

Explanation: Phlogopite is a specific type of mica (magnesium mica), and Pegmatite is the igneous rock in which commercial mica crystals are typically found.

115. Biggest Thermal Power Plant

Correct Answer: (2) The Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station, Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: With an installed capacity of 4,760 MW, it is currently the largest operational thermal power plant in India.

116. Greatest Diversity (Species)

Correct Answer: (1) Tropical Moist Forests

Explanation: Tropical rainforests/moist forests are known as the world's most biologically diverse ecosystems, containing over half of the world's plant and animal species.

117. Maximum Seasonal Differences

Correct Answer: (1) Mid Latitudes

Explanation: High latitudes (poles) are always cold; low latitudes (equator) are always hot. Mid latitudes (temperate zones) experience the most distinct transitions between four clear seasons (Spring, Summer, Autumn, Winter).

118. River Order (North to South)

Correct Answer: (3) Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej

Explanation: This is the geographic sequence of the tributaries of the Indus river from top to bottom.

119. Naupada ICMBA Location

Correct Answer: (1) Srikakulam

Explanation: The Naupada swamps and the Telineelapuram bird sanctuary are located in the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh.

120. Atmosphere Constituents (Descending Order)

Correct Answer: (1) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Co2

Explanation: The composition is roughly: Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Argon (0.93%), and Carbon Dioxide (0.04%).

Paper2 2022 PYQ’S

Q1 There are 6 tasks and 6 people. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2; task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done? (1) 144 (2) 180 (3) 192 (4) 360

Q2 In a row of 40 girls, when Ankitha was shifted to her left by four places, her number from the left end of the row becomes 10. What was the number of Kanchana from the right end of the row if Kanchana was three places to the right of Ankitha's original position? (1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 22 (4) 23

Q3 Vaccination drive for Covid-19 is carried out in a village of 1000 people. The first person that comes for vaccination is placed in Group A, the next two in Group B, the next 3 in Group C, the next 4 in Group D, and the next 5 in Group E. After the 5th member of Group E, the pattern repeats, starting from 1 member in Group A and so on. The last beneficiary to be vaccinated belongs to (1) Group A (2) Group B (3) Group C (4) Group D

Q4 Ramesh said to his daughter, "I am four times as old as you now. Five years from now, I will be thrice as old as you." His daughter asked him, "Ten years from now, how many times my age would you be?" What would Ramesh's answer be? (1) 2 times (2) 1.5 times (3) 2.5 times (4) None of the above

Q5 In a badminton tournament between schools A and B, school A won 50% of the matches played in the first three weeks. At the end of the tournament, its success rate was 75%. If 6 matches were played in the first three weeks and school A won all its matches played after that, how many matches did the tournament have? (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 15 (4) 12

Q6 The ratio of jobs done by 30 girls to the job done by 25 boys, in the same time period is 5:6. If 9 girls and 10 boys can finish a job in 40/13 days, then how many girls are required to complete the job in 6 days? (1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 12 (4) 14

Q7 In a community of 175 persons, 40 read The Hindu, 50 read The Indian Express. What is the range of people reading both the papers? (1) 125 and 135 (2) 40 and 85 (3) 25 and 85 (4) 25 and 40

Q8 There are two different ways of going from city A to city B. There are 3 different ways of going from city B to city C. There are two different ways of going from city C that are not passing through city B. How many different ways of going from city A to city C are there? (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12

Q9 Meher purchases 3 apples, 7 bananas and 1 lemon for ₹285. Rohan buys 4 apples, 5 bananas and 1 lemon for ₹245. How much does Harish pay if he buys 1 apple, 11 bananas and 1 lemon? (1) ₹345 (2) ₹365 (3) ₹385 (4) ₹375

Q10 The Compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is ₹1,512 and Simple interest is ₹1,440. If the sum is invested such that the Simple interest is ₹2,592 and the number of years is equal to the rate of interest per annum, then find the rate? (1) 5% (2) 6% (3) 7% (4) 8%

Q11 You are an officer-in-charge for providing food facilities to the survivors of a cyclone affected area. Despite your best possible efforts, people level allegations against you that you are making money out of the funds sanctioned for relief. You would: (1) Stop providing the food facilities till the matter is resolved (2) Let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter (3) Request your senior to appoint some other person in your place (4) Ignore the allegations

Q12 As a citizen, you have some work in Grama Sachivalayam and have submitted an application for the same. The official there calls you repeatedly and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would: (1) Send a formal complaint (2) Give a bribe (3) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and pursue your application (4) Verbally complain to the higher officials about the feelers and ask for help

Q13. You have been made responsible to procure medical items at a short notice to be used for an area affected by a pandemic. On finding the price mentioned by the suppliers, you found that the lowest price quoted is approximately five times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would ... (1) Accept the lowest price (2) Reject the quotes and call for fresh quotes (3) Refer the matter to the higher authorities and wait (4) Threaten the medical suppliers about a possible cancellation of the license

Q14 You are handling a time-bound project. Suddenly, you meet with an accident. Your immediate superior insists that you complete the task. You would ... (1) Stay away from work till you recover. (2) Suggest an alternate person to your superior who can handle the project. (3) Inform your superior of your inability to finish the project on time. (4) Request for an extension of deadline.

Q15 You have differences of opinion regarding the project report prepared by your subordinate. The report has to be submitted immediately. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would ... (1) Tell him to reconsider the results (2) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong (3) Update and correct the report on your own (4) Warn the subordinate not to justify the incorrect information

Q16 There are nine 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 59 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the nine numbers? (1) 73 (2) 63 (3) 65 (4) 61

Q17 Latha went to the market to buy some vegetables. While leaving her house she checked her wallet and got to know that she had some hundred-rupee notes and some twenty-rupee notes. After shopping she had the same number of hundred-rupee notes as she originally had twenty-rupee notes and the same number of twenty-rupee notes as she originally had hundred-rupee notes. If the remaining money was one-third of what she initially had while stepping out of her house, find the initial ratio of the number of hundred-rupee notes and twenty-rupee notes. (1) 7:1 (2) 1:7 (3) 1:8 (4) 8:1

Q18 In a class, Raghu obtained the 11th rank and he was 31st from the bottom of the list of boys passed. Three boys did not take the examination and one failed. What is the total strength of the class? (1) 45 (2) 46 (3) 35 (4) 42

Q19 124 chocolates were left when the total chocolates in a box were divided equally among 403 students. How many chocolates would remain if the chocolates from the same box are distributed equally among 31 students? (1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 124 (4) 23

Q20 A shopkeeper has three cloth pieces of lengths 7 m, 3 m 85 cm and 12 m 95 cm respectively. He measures each of the three cloth pieces with a rod at his disposal and finds that the length of each cloth piece is an integral multiple of the length of the rod. What can be the maximum length of the rod? (1) 1 m (2) 25 cm (3) 35 cm (4) 42 cm

Q21 100 students were to participate in school games. 60 students participated in game 1, while 50 students participated in game 2. 10 students did not come on time, so they were disqualified. How many students participated in only one of the games? (1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 70 (4) 30

Q22 In a rural market there are two types of vendors, X and Y. 70 percent of the vendors are X, and 60% of the X earn ₹ 50,000 or more in a month. Total number of vendors who earn ₹ 50,000 or more per month in the rural market is 48 percent of the total vendors. What percentage of Y earn less than ₹ 50,000 ? (1) 18% (2) 80% (3) 20% (4) 24%

Q23 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives.

17	12	11
47	43	?
4	5	6

(1) 55 (2) 49 (3) 53 (4) 46

Q24 If we listed all numbers from 100 to 10,000, how many times would the digit 5 be printed ? (1) 3980 (2) 3700 (3) 3840 (4) 378

Q25 A businessman wants to make some profit by selling a certain item. He thinks about several methods to make profit. Which of the following would maximize his profit? I. Sell that item at 10% profit. II. Use an incorrect weight which is 100 grams less than 1 kg, but is marked as 1 kg. III. Mix 10% impurities in that item and sell that item at cost price. IV. Increase the price by 5%, and use an incorrect weight whose real value is 5% less than what is marked on it. Select the answer using correct code. (1) IV only (2) I only (3) II only (4) III only

Q26 Find the wrong term in the given series. 7, 12, 40, 222, 1742, 17390, 208608 (1) 7 (2) 12 (3) 40 (4) 1742

Q27 Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 84 kmph and including stoppages, it is 70 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? (1) 10 minutes (2) 8 minutes (3) 15 minutes (4) 12 minutes

Q28 Consider the following pattern of numbers: 2 + 4 + 6 = 14 12 + 7 + 3 = 22 17 + 5 + 8 = 18 9 + 7 + 1 = # Which number will come in place of the #? (1) 17 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 11

Q29 A child made a big cube by joining 64 smaller red cubes. He then painted the faces of the big cube in yellow colour, except one face. His teacher came and dismantled all the cubes and asked him to count the number of cubes whose two faces are yellow. If the child answered correctly, then how many cubes did he count? (1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 20 (4) 8

Q30 In a school sports competition, 40% students participated in shooting, 35% students participated in wrestling, 32% students in boxing, 9% students participated in shooting and wrestling, 11% students participated in boxing and wrestling, 8% students participated in shooting and boxing and 5% students participated in all the three sports. If 64 students did not participate in any sport, then find the total number of students in the school. (1) 450 (2) 350 (3) 500 (4) 400

31. The calendar for the year 2009 will be the same for the year:

(1) 2014

(2) 2013

(3) 2012

(4) 2016

32. What can be the maximum sum of Saturdays and Sundays in a normal year?

(1) 104

(2) 105

(3) 106

(4) 107

33. If in a particular non-leap year, the month of June had 5 Mondays, then that year must have started with which one of the following days?

(1) Thursday or Friday

(2) Friday or Wednesday

(3) Thursday or Saturday

(4) None of the above

34. How many pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy the following equation:

1/m + 4/n = 1/12

where n is an odd integer less than 60?

(1) 3

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 7

35. If x = -0.5, then which of the following has the smallest value?

(1) 2^{1/x}

(2) 1\x

(3) 1\{x^2}

(4) 2^x

36. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5:1 in container 1 and 1:3 in container 2. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 2:1?

(1) 2:3

(2) 4:3

(3) 3:2

(4) 5:2

37. There are 6 members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family who are spread across 3 generations. There are two couples in the family and no one from the third generation is married. E is the wife of C. F and B are a couple and the only people belonging to their generation. There are 4 male members in the family. Which of the following must be true?

(1) D is the grandson of A.

(2) A and E belong to the same generation.

(3) There is no female in the third generation.

(4) E is the father of F.

38. Let $N$ be the greatest number that will divide 6360, 7420 and 9540, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then the sum of the digits of $N$ is:

(1) 7

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 8

39. What is the number of triangles in the figure given below

(1) 13

(2) 15

(3) 14

(4) 16

40. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 feet and that of the back wheel is 36 feet. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?

(1) 850 feet

(2) 800 feet

(3) 720 feet

(4) 900 feet

41. Ramesh wants to plant 372 tomato plants, 558 chilli plants and 1116 onion plants in equal rows. Also, he wants to make distinct rows of each plant, i.e. every row should have only one kind of plant. What are the minimum number of rows that are required?

(1) 8

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 16

42. The total number of integers between 400 and 600, each of which, either begins with 5 or ends with 5 but not both, is

(1) 10

(2) 100

(3) 110

(4) 120

43. A shopkeeper is selling his goods at 40% discount, but is still able to make 20% profit on the list price. By what percentage does he mark up his goods?

(1) 60%

(2) 40%

(3) 80%

(4) 100%

44. Anand and Rishi are the two biggest competitors of chess. The probability of Rishi losing a game against Anand is 75%. What is the probability that Anand loses at least one out of the four games played between them?

(1)81/256

(2) 3/4

(3) 1/2

(4) 175/256

45. A tank has eight pipes, some of which fill the tank and the rest empty the tank. Each inlet pipe fills the tank in 8 hours while each outlet pipe empties it in 6 hours. If all the pipes are kept open when the tank is full, it takes 6 hours to drain the tank. How many pipes are inlet pipes?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Five

46. Ajeet and Sujeet go for shopping in a mall. They use an escalator to move between various floors. The escalator moves at a constant speed. Ajeet takes nine steps for every five of Sujeet's steps. Ajeet takes 30 steps to reach the top while Sujeet takes 20 steps to reach the top. If the escalator was turned off, how many steps would they have to take to walk up?

(1) 40 steps

(2) 50 steps

(3) 60 steps

(4) 80 steps

47. A beats B by 15 seconds in a 200 m race, B beats C by 25 seconds in a 500 m race, C beats D by 32 seconds in an 800 m race and D beats E by 35 seconds in a 1 km race. What must be the speed of A in order to beat E by 800 m in a 2 km race?

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 3.33 m/s

(3) 5 m/s

(4) 6.66 m/s

48. 5 persons will live in a tent. If each person requires 16 m^2 of floor area and 100 m^3 space for air, then the height of the cone of smallest size to accommodate these persons would be

(1) 18.75 m

(2) 16 m

(3) 10.25 m

(4) None of the above

49"A 5 × 5 × 5 cube is formed using 1 × 1 × 1 cubes. If we add another layer of such 1 × 1 × 1 cubes in the 5 × 5 × 5 cube, then what will be the number of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes in the newly formed cube ?"

(1) 216

(2) 150

(3) 175

(4) 264

50. A change-making machine contains one-rupee, two-rupee and five-rupee coins. The total number of coins is 300. The amount is 960. If the number of one-rupee coins and two-rupee coins are interchanged, the value comes down by 40. The total number of five-rupee coins is

(1) 100

(2) 140

(3) 60

(4) 150

51. P, Q, R and S are four statements. Relation between these statements is as follows:

I. If P is true, then Q must be true.

II. If Q is true, then R must be true.

III. If S is true, then either Q is false or R is false.

Which of the following must be true?

(1) If P is true, then S is false

(2) If S is false, then Q must be true

(3) If Q is true, then P must be true

(4) If R is true, then Q must be true

52. A decorative lamp has 2 brown, 3 green and 4 white bulbs. What is the probability of lighting three bulbs such that at least one bulb that glows is white?

(1) 37/42

(2) 23/38

(3) 45/47

(4) 29/33

53. In a college, 25% students play football. A student who does not play football, plays cricket. Every cricket player wears a cap. Which of the following conclusions cannot be made from the above data?

I. 25% of the students do not wear caps.

II. No cricketer plays football.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

54. The total number of students in a class is 400. The ratio of number of students who like Arts and the ones who like Science is 3:5. The number of students who like Science is more than the ones who like Arts by how much?

(1) 140

(2) 100

(3) 180

(4) 160

55. A to Z are numbered with the first 26 consecutive prime numbers. If PQR = 519 and UVW = 705, then what is JKL equal to?

(1) 915

(2) 129

(3) 291

(4) 97

56. Pranav sold two books at the same price. On one book he made a profit of 10% while on the other, he incurred a loss of 10%. In this case, which of the following statements is correct?

(1) He makes no profit or loss

(2) He suffers a loss of 1%

(3) He makes a profit of 1%

(4) He suffers a loss of 2%

57. In the following question, select the number which can replace the question mark (?) from the given alternatives:

(1) 2197

(2) 343

(3) 2144

(4) 1231

58. Kranthi is facing west. She then turns 45 degrees in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degrees in the same direction and then 270 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is she facing now?

(1) South

(2) North-west

(3) West

(4) South-west

59. A watch loses time at a constant rate per hour and the watch owner adjusts the time lost by the watch in one day at the end of 48 hours. After how many days will the watch show the correct time before the watch owner adjusts the time?

(1) 80 days

(2) 40 days

(3) 60 days

(4) None of the above

60. The figure below shows the opened-up version of a cube with dots on each face: (Opened-up cube representation)

Which of these cubes (I and II) show the correct position of the dots?

II.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

Part B (i): Science and Technology

61. A joint programme of DRDO and ISRO, developed highly potent Anti-Satellite Weapons (ASAT) under Mission Shakti.

I. ASAT is a missile-based system to attack moving satellites.

II. India, using ASAT Missile, destroyed a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit.

III. ASAT missile is capable of shooting down targets moving at a speed of 50 km per second at an altitude as high as 2000 km.

Which of the statements regarding ASAT are true?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only

(3) I, II and III

(4) II and III only

62. Which of the following events has delayed the commissioning of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant?

I. Disintegration of the USSR

II. India's economic crisis of 1991

III. Protests by Civil Society

Select the correct answer from below:

(1) III only

(2) I only

(3) I, II and III

(4) I and III only

63. With reference to a mega project pertaining to Nuclear Fusion research that is being built in Southern France, International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER), consider the following statements:

I. It was designed to demonstrate the scientific and technological feasibility of fusion power for peaceful use.

II. Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar is the Nodal agency for the ITER project.

III. ADITYA is a medium size Tokamak fusion reactor installed at IPR, Gandhinagar as part of ITER.

IV. EU, India, China, Japan, South Korea, Russia and US are the members of ITER.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I, II and III only

(4) I, II, III and IV

64. With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements:

I. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but no single user controls.

II. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.

III. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) I and II only

(3) III only

(4) I and III only

65. In India 3D-Printed Cornea and 3D-Printed Liver Tissue were developed respectively by

(1) Aravind Eye Hospital and Panacea Biotec Ltd

(2) L.V. Prasad Eye Institute and Biocon Limited

(3) L.V. Prasad Eye Institute and Pandorum Technologies

(4) Centre for Sight and SIRO Clinpharm

66. In the reduced or microgravity of Space, the astronauts' faces become red and bloated due to the blood and cerebrospinal fluid shifting towards the head causing them to have round, puffy faces and thinner legs. This phenomenon is known as

(1) Debye-Falkenhagen Effect

(2) De Hass-Van Alphen Effect

(3) Aharonov-Bohm Effect

(4) Charlie Brown Effect

67. Identify the incorrect statement about the e-Governance programmes in India.

(1) DARPAN is an online tool that can be used to monitor and analyse the implementation of critical projects of the State.

(2) KHAJANE is an e-Governance project for the computerized delivery of land records to farmers of Karnataka.

(3) Jeevan Pramaan is an Aadhaar-based Biometric Authentication System for pensioners.

(4) e-PRAGATI has been aimed at starting a culture of pro-active governance and timely implementation.

68. "Cheetahs have been reintroduced in India." Which of the following connected to the above statement are correct?

I. Cheetahs will help in the restoration of open forest and grassland system.

II. Project Cheetah is the world's first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project.

III. Out of 8 Namibian wild Cheetahs reintroduced into Kuno National Park, 5 are male and 3 are female.

IV. The Cheetahs indigenous to India that went extinct, are African Cheetahs.

V. Author of "The End of a Trail - The Cheetah in India" is Divyabhanusinh.

Select options:

(1) I, III and IV

(2) I, II and IV

(3) I, II and V

(4) I, II, IV and V

69. A fermentation process that uses ultrasound to safely generate Xylitol from Sugarcane bagasse is created by

(1) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

(2) Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research, Lucknow

(3) Sugarcane Breeding Institute, Coimbatore

(4) Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati

70. Identify the incorrect statement about Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus developed in India:

I. India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was developed by Veera Vahana Company.

II. The fuel cell employed in the Hydrogen-powered Bus will combine Hydrogen and Carbon dioxide to create electricity.

III. The effluent from the hydrogen-powered Bus is water and heat instead of smoke.

Select options:

(1) I and III

(2) II and III

(3) I and II

(4) All of the above

71. Consider the following statements regarding India's Anti-Satellite Missile test:

I. The test successfully destroyed a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit.

II. The test was done in the upper atmosphere to ensure that there is no space debris.

III. India is the fourth country in the world to have this kind of missile system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) II only

(3) I and III only

(4) II and III only

72. Recently, NITI Aayog approved a proposal to conduct a study on the use of facial recognition technology in India. In the context of facial recognition technology, consider following statements:

I. National Automated Facial Recognition System (NAFRS) is being developed by the National Informatics Centre, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

II. The biggest demerit of facial recognition technology is its limitation in identifying people in real-time and not in photos and videos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

73. Consider the following statements regarding ExoMars:

I. Its rover will be the first mission to combine the capability to move across the surface and to study Mars at depth.

II. ExoMars is a joint programme of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Russian Space Agency - Roscosmos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

74. Consider the following statements regarding Fast Breeder Reactors:

I. Fast Breeder Reactors are designed to breed more fuel than they consume.

II. In this reactor, Plutonium-239 undergoes fission to produce energy, while the Uranium-238 present in the fuel transmutes to additional Plutonium-239.

III. It is a part of stage 1 of India's Nuclear power programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) I and II only

(3) II and III only

(4) I, II and III

75. Consider the following statements about International Nitrogen Initiative (INI):

I. It is set up under sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

II. Its key objective is to optimize nitrogen's beneficial role in sustainable food production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

76. Consider the following statements regarding the Nationally Determined Contributions Transport Initiative for Asia (NDCTIA):

I. It is an ASEAN initiative that aims to facilitate a paradigm shift to zero emission transport across Asia.

II. The Indian component of the initiative is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in partnership with the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):

I. It is a Navratna Enterprise of Government of India.

II. It aims to give financial support to schemes for generating electricity through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency.

III. It works directly under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II and III only

(3) III only

(4) I, II and III

78. The Renewables Integration in India 2021 report was launched by which of the following institutions?

(1) NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency

(2) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(3) International Solar Alliance and Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(4) Ministry of Power

79. Consider the following statements with reference to the enrichment of Uranium:

I. Uranium enrichment refers to increasing the percentage of U-238 (the fissile isotope) through the process of isotope separation.

II. Weapons-grade Uranium has to be enriched to a maximum of 20 percent of the fissile isotope.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

80. With reference to Digital Embossing Technology, consider the following statements:

I. It is a printing technology that does not use chemicals, solvents and also emits no pollutants.

II. It can be used to produce braille maps for the visually challenged.

III. It was introduced in India recently by the National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) functioning as the Attached Office of the Department of Science & Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) I and II only

(3) II and III only

(4) I, II and III

81. With reference to ISRO's upcoming mission "Shukrayaan-I", consider the following statements:

I. Shukrayaan is India's first mission to Saturn to study the planet's surface and atmosphere.

II. The satellite is planned to be launched onboard the GSLV Mk III rocket.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) None of the above

82. With reference to RFID Technology, consider the following statements:

I. Passive RFID tags are powered by an internal circuit and utilize it to send response to the reader.

II. Semi-passive RFID tags comprise an internal circuit with power source but rely on radio waves received from the reader to transmit the response.

III. Active RFID tags acquire their power from the readers' incoming radio waves.

IV. RFID Technology can scan a tag as long as it is within frequency range and it does not have any line-of-sight limitations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II and IV only

(4) III and IV only

83. Consider the following statements:

I. Dark Reserve is a public or private land with distinguished a nocturnal environment and starry nights that has been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution.

II. World's 1st International Dark Sky Reserve is Mont-Megantic, located in Russia.

III. The International Dark-Sky Association (IDSA) is a EU-based non-profit organisation that designates sites as international dark sky places.

IV. The Department of Science & Technology (DST) has announced the setting up of India's 1st Dark-Sky Reserve in Himachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II, III and IV only

(4) None of the above

84. Consider the following statements with reference to Sampurnanand Telescope:

I. It is located at Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Ladakh.

II. It has completed 50 years of operations.

III. It has been extensively used for optical observations of comets, star forming regions and star clusters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I and III only

(4) All of the above

85. Consider the following statements with reference to Dirty Bomb:

I. It is a bomb that contains radioactive material, such as uranium, which is scattered through the air when its conventional explosive detonates.

II. It creates city-flattening atomic explosion and less toxic waste.

III. Manufacturing dirty bombs is costlier than nuclear weapons.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I and III only

(4) None of the above

86. Consider the following statements with reference to "Gaganyaan":

I. Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the formative spacecraft of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme.

II. ISRO announced Vyommitra, a Male Robot who will accompany other astronauts in the mission.

III. The crewed vehicle is planned to be launched on ISRO's GSLV Mk II.

IV. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) will provide support for critical human-centric systems and technologies in this mission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only

(3) II and IV only

(4) I and IV only

87. Consider the following statements with reference to "Small satellite launch vehicle" designed by ISRO:

I. It can place a 500 kg payload at a height of 500 km in the Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

II. It has two solid motor stages with a lift off mass of 100 tonnes.

III. It is shorter in length than the PSLV and GSLV.

IV. Unlike the PSLV and GSLV, it can be assembled both vertically and horizontally.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II, III and IV only

(4) All of the above

88. Consider the following statements with reference to "International Space Station":

I. It is a multinational collaborative project between five participating space agencies i.e., NASA (USA), Roscosmos (Russia), ESA (Europe), JAXA (Japan) and ISRO (India).

II. It is the only active modular space station (habitable artificial satellite) in the Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

III. It has been functional since 1998.

IV. The ownership and use of the space station are established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II, III and IV only

(4) All of the above

89. Which of the following Schemes/Programmes are launched with the objective of reversing India's brain drain to brain gain?

I. VAJRA Scheme

II. Ramanujan Fellowship Programme

III. INSPIRE Scheme

IV. ASEAN – India Research Training Fellowship Scheme

Select the correct answer from below:

(1) II and III only

(2) I, II and III only

(3) I and II only

(4) I, II, III and IV

90. Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) developed the strategic plan and Vision 2030 document based on the following:

I. Strengthen health research capacity in the country

II. Leverage traditional medicine

III. Well aligned with the National Health Policy NHP-2017

Select the correct answer from below:

(1) II and III only

(2) I and III only

(3) I, II and III

(4) None of the above

Part B (ii): Current Events of Regional, National and International Importance

91. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT)?

I. SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Switzerland.

II. SWIFT was founded in 1991.

III. SWIFT is a payment network.

IV. SWIFT has the authority to impose sanctions on the banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) II, III and IV only

(3) I, III and IV only

(4) None of the above

92. Consider the following statements with reference to China's Chang'e 5 lunar probe:

I. It is named after the Chinese Moon goddess.

II. It is China's first attempt at a sample-return mission.

III. It will be the first probe to bring back material from the Moon, since NASA's Luna 24 mission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I and III only

(4) I, II and III

93. Consider the following statements with reference to Conference of Parties (COP27):

I. COP27 was held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt.

II. COP27 reiterated the goal set by the Paris Agreement at COP21 which was to keep global warming from rising more than 1.5 degrees Celsius from the 2000s.

III. The previous Conference of Parties (COP26) was held in Glasgow, Scotland.

IV. COP27 reached agreement to provide "loss and damage" funding for vulnerable countries hit hard by climate disasters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II, III and IV only

(4) None of the above

94. Consider the following statements with reference to Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC):

I. The launch of Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) is spearheaded by United Arab Emirates in partnership with Indonesia.

II. Australia, Japan, United States, Canada, Sri Lanka and India are members of MAC.

III. It was launched at the Conference of Parties (COP27) summit.

IV. It is an intergovernmental alliance with no binding targets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I, III and IV only

(3) II, III and IV only

(4) None of the above

95. Consider the following statements with reference to G20 summit:

I. The two-day G20 summit was held in Bali, Indonesia in 2022.

II. "Recover Together, Recover Stronger" is the theme for India's G20 presidency.

III. "One Earth, One Family, One Future" is the theme for Indonesia's G20 presidency.

IV. "Data for Development" will be the integral part of overall theme of India's G20 presidency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only

(3) I and IV only

(4) II and III only

96. Kiev city is located on which of the following rivers?

(1) Don

(2) Danube

(3) Dniester

(4) Dnieper

97. Consider the following statements with reference to GloLitter Partnerships Project:

I. It is an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

II. It aims to reduce marine litter, especially plastic litter from all the sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) I only

(2) II only

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

98. Pick out the correct matches from the following statements regarding externally-aided projects in Andhra Pradesh:

I. Andhra Pradesh Integrated Irrigation and Agriculture Transformation Project is aided by the World Bank.

II. Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) is aided by Japan International Co-operation Agency (JICA).

III. Andhra Pradesh Irrigation and Livelihood Improvement Project Phase-3 is aided by KfW-German Bank.

Select options:

(1) Only I is correct

(2) Only II and III are correct

(3) Only I and III are correct

(4) Only III is correct

99.Which of the following statements are correct regarding status of Andhra Pradesh Aquaculture?

I. 'YSR Matsyakara Bharosa' relief is provided to marine fishermen families during fishing ban period.

II. Andhra Pradesh Fisheries University is to be established in East Godavari District.

III. The Diesel Oil Subsidy for fishermen boats is associated with exemption of sales tax on HSD oil.

IV. The Government has enhanced the financial benefit to deceased fishermen (while fishing) family from ₹ 5 lakhs to ₹ 10 lakhs.

(1) Only I, II and III are correct (2) Only I and II are correct (3) Only III and IV are correct (4) Only I, III and IV are correct

100.Which of the following statements are correct about Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor Development Program (VCICDP) ?

I. It is partly funded by loan from Asian Development Bank (ADB).

II. It is aligned with the Golden Quadrilateral and covers more than 800 km of the State of Andhra Pradesh's coastline.

III. It is a node-centric development platform comprising four nodes.

IV. Donakonda is recognized as one of the nodes.

(1) Only I and II are correct (2) Only II and III are correct (3) Only I, II and IV are correct (4) Only I, III and IV are correct

101.Which of the following statements are correct about the Sea Ports in the State of Andhra Pradesh ?

I. GoAP has recently declared Krishnapatnam Port as a Major Port.

II. Kakinada SEZ Port is being converted from captive port to commercial port through Swiss Challenge Approach.

III. GoAP has declared Nakkapalli Port as a Minor Port.

IV. Vodarevu Port is being developed on Build, Own, Operate and Transfer (BOOT) basis.

(1) Only I, III and IV are correct (2) Only II, III and IV are correct (3) Only II and III are correct (4) Only III and IV are correct

102.Which of the following minorities have been allotted special budget cover (2021-22) by the Government of Andhra Pradesh?

(1) Qureshi (2) Gosangi (3) Borewale (4) Dudekula

103.Which of the following statements are valid regarding the initiatives taken by the Andhra Pradesh Government in Women Development and Child Welfare Department?

I. Government in collaboration with PRATHAM organization is building the capacities of supervisors and anganwadi workers.

II. Government in collaboration with UK CATAPULT organization is extending support for funding the YSR Thalli Bidda Express.

103.Which of the following statements are valid regarding the initiatives taken by the Andhra Pradesh Government in Women Development and Child Welfare Department?

I. Government in collaboration with PRATHAM organization is building the capacities of supervisors and anganwadi workers.

II. Government in collaboration with UK CATAPULT organization is extending support for funding the YSR Thalli Bidda Express.

III. 'YSR Sampoorna Poshana Plus' scheme provides nutritional support to pregnant women and lactating mothers in all the mandals except the 77 Scheduled and Tribals sub-mandals.

IV. Poshan Abhiyaan is implemented in the State by a 50% external aid from IBRD.

(1) Only I and III are correct (2) Only II is correct (3) Only I, III and IV are correct (4) Only I and IV are correct

104.Which of the following statements regarding the investments in Andhra Pradesh at World Economic Forum (WEF) 2022 is incorrect ?

(1) ArcelorMittal Nippon Steel (AMNS) announced an investment of ₹ 1,000 crores to expand its pellet plant capacity in Visakhapatnam.

(2) Government of Andhra Pradesh signed an MOU with Aurobindo Realty & Infrastructure Private Limited for generating 6000 MW of Green Energy.

(3) Government of Andhra Pradesh signed an MOU with Greenko Group for generating 8000 MW of Green Power.

(4) Government of Andhra Pradesh signed an MOU with ACE Urban Developers for setting up a Pumps and Compressor manufacturing unit at Mega Industrial Park at Kopparthy, YSR Kadapa district.

105. In the recent times which of the following bird had mass mortality at Telineelapuram Important Bird Area (IBA) of Srikakulam district ?

(1) Red-cheeked Cordon Bleu (2) Pelecanus Philippensis (3) Rainbow Lorikeet (4) Mycteria Leucocephala

106.Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022 ?

I. Visakhapatnam was awarded 'Top Impact Creator' under Million Plus City category.

II. Tirupati Municipal Corporation won the first rank in 'Safaimitra Suraksha Seher'.

III. Salur was awarded for innovation and best practices under South zone for towns with 50,000 to one lakh population.

IV. Pulivendula was awarded for innovation and best practices under South zone for towns with 25,000 to 50,000 population.

V. Vijayawada Municipal Corporation was awarded as cleanest capital.

(1) II, IV and V (2) I, II and V (3) I and II only (4) I, II and III

107.Consider the following statements :

I. Andhra Pradesh Official Language (Amendment) Act, 2022 Bill was introduced in the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly on 23rd March, 2022.

II. Urdu language, as the second official language in all the districts of Andhra Pradesh came into force on 25th April, 2022.

III. Urdu language was already the second official language in Nellore, Anantapur, Guntur, Chittoor and Kadapa of United Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?

(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I and II

108.Match the following List I with List II with regard to Arjuna Awards 2022 :

Name of Sportsperson	Discipline
a. Sushila Devi	i. Shooting
b. Omprakash Mitharwal	ii. Weightlifting
c. Vikas Thakur	iii. Para Badminton
d. Tarun Dhillon	iv. Deaf Badminton
e. Jerlin Anika J.	v. Judo

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-v (2) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-i, e-iv (3) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-iv (4) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-i, e-iv

109.Identify the correct statements about the Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE).

I. It was announced in the Union Budget 2022 – 23 to address developmental gaps in the North Eastern Region (NER).

II. PM-DevINE is an addition to the quantum of resources available for the development of the North Eastern Region and will not be a substitute for existing Central and State Schemes.

III. It enables livelihood activities for the youth and women of North Eastern Region.

IV. PM-DevINE will fund infrastructure convergently, in the spirit of PM Gati Shakti.

(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV (3) II, III and IV (4) All of the above

110.Consider the following statements, with reference to e-RUPI :

I. It is a seamless one-time payment mechanism.

II. It is powered by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India).

III. It was developed with the support of DFS (Department of Financial Services) and NHA (National Health Authority).

IV. It was launched in the year 2020.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, III and IV only (2) I, II and III only (3) II, III and IV only (4) All of the above

111.Consider the following statements with respect to the "Satkosia Tiger Reserve" :

I. It is a Tiger Reserve located in Odisha.

II. It comprises two adjoining Sanctuaries of Central Odisha, named the Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and the Debrigarh Sanctuary.

III. It is located in the Eastern Ghats where Mahanadi river flows through a deep gorge.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I and II only (2) II and III only (3) I and III only (4) I, II and III

112.Consider the following statements with reference to the "Crimson Rose Butterfly" :

I. It is categorised as 'Endangered' as per the IUCN Red List.

II. It is most common in the Himalayan regions, like Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

113.Consider the following statements with reference to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 :

I. The Act empowers authorities like the Director to attach property believed to be "proceeds of crime".

II. Offences under Part A of the Schedule deal with trans-border crimes and reflect the dedication to tackle money laundering across the global boundaries.

III. The Act and the Rules notified thereunder came into force with effect from 2005.

IV. The Act has provided for an Appellate Tribunal and Special Court to conduct the trial of the offences of money laundering.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and III only (2) I, III and IV only (3) II, III and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV

114. Consider the following statements with reference to Vande Bharat Express:

I. It is semi-high speed electric multiple unit train operated by Indian Railways. II. The first Vande Bharat train was manufactured by Integral Coach Factory, Chennai. III. It can achieve maximum speed of 250 kmph, reducing journey time. IV. It was previously known as Train 18. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and III

(2)I, III and IV

(3)I, II and IV

(4)II and IV

115.Consider the following statements about “Vikram-S”:

I. It is India’s first privately built rocket.

II. It is a single stage suborbital space launch vehicle.

III. The mission for the rocket launch has been named as “Prarambh”, meaning beginning.

IV. It was developed by space tech startup Agnikul Cosmos. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and IV

(2) I, II

(3) II, III

(2) I, II and III

116.Consider the following statements about "National War Memorial" :

I. It was inaugurated in 2021.

II. The eternal flame of Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate was put out and merged with another eternal flame at the National War Memorial.

III. It was built to commemorate all the soldiers who have laid down their lives in the various battles, wars, operations and conflicts of Independent India.

IV. The architecture of the memorial is based on four concentric circles.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and III only (2) I, III and IV only (3) II, III and IV only (4) All of the above

117.Recently, the Prime Minister of India led tributes to freedom fighter Velu Nachiyar on her 292nd birth anniversary.

With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

I. She was the first queen to wage a war against the East India Company.

II. She formed an alliance with Tipu Sultan against the British in 1780.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

118.I2U2 is a new partnership between

(1) Indonesia, India, United Kingdom and United States of America.

(2) Israel, India, United Arab Emirates and United States of America.

(3) Israel, India, United Kingdom and United States of America.

(4) Indonesia, India, United Arab Emirates and United States of America.

119.Identify the names of Ramon Magsaysay 2022 Awardees from the following :

I. Sotheara Chhim

II. Bernadette J. Madrid

III. Tan Soo Heong

IV. Gary Bencheghib

V. Tadashi Hattori

(1) I, II, IV and V

(2) I, III, IV and V

(3) I, II, III and IV

(4) All of the above

120.Consider the following statements with reference to Agriculture Orientation Index (AOI) :

I. It is published by The International Food Policy Research Institute.

II. It measures the country's progress towards SDG-2 (End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition).

III. It is calculated as the percentage of the Government's expenditure on agriculture, divided by the share of agriculture in the GDP.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only

(3) I and III only

(4) All of the above

SOLUTIONS

Q1. (1) 144

Task 2 → 2 ways (P3/P4). If Task 2 = P3, Task 1 = 3 ways (P4/P5/P6). Remaining 4 tasks → 4! = 24 ways. Total = 2 × 3 × 24 = 144.

Q2. (1) 24

Ankitha's original position = 10 + 4 = 14th from left. Kanchana = 14 + 3 = 17th from left. From right = 40 - 17 + 1 = 24.

Q3. (4) Group D

Pattern repeats after 1+2+3+4+5 = 15 people. 1000 ÷ 15 → remainder 10. 1→A, 2→B, 3→C, 4→D → 10th person = Group D.

Q4. (1) 2 times

Let daughter = x, father = 4x. After 5 years: 4x+5 = 3(x+5) → x=10. Father=40, daughter=10. After 10 years: 50/20 = 2.5 times.

Q5. (4) 12

Let total matches = T. First 3 weeks: 6 matches, won 3. Won all remaining = T-6. Total wins = T-3. (T-3)/T = 75% = 3/4 → 4T-12 = 3T → T = 12.

Q6. (3) 12

Girl : Boy efficiency = 25 : 36. 9 girls + 10 boys = 9×25 + 10×36 = 585 units/day. Work = 585 × 40/13 = 1800 units. To finish in 6 days: need 300 units/day. Girls needed = 300/25 = 12.

Q7. QUESTION DELETED

Q8. (2) 8

Via B: 2 × 3 = 6 ways. Direct (not via B): 2 ways. Total = 6+2 = 8.

Q9. (2) ₹365

Let apple=a, banana=b, lemon=l. 3a+7b+l=285 ...(1) 4a+5b+l=245 ...(2) Subtract: -a+2b=40 → a = 2b-40. Put in (2): 13b+l=405. Harish: a+11b+l = (2b-40)+11b+l = 13b+l-40 = 405-40 = 365.

Q10. (2) 6%

SI for 2 years = 1440 → SI for 1 year = 720. CI - SI = 1512-1440 = 72 = 720 × R/100 → R=10%. P = 72000/10 = 7200. Now SI = P×R×R/100 = 2592 → 7200×R²/100=2592 → R²=36 → R=6%.

Q11. (2) Let an enquiry be set up

Best administrative response.

Q12. (3) Verbally complain to the higher officials about the feelers and ask for help

Q13. (1) Accept the lowest price.

Q14. (2) Suggest an alternate person

Responsible approach.

Q15. (3) Update and correct the report

As superior, final responsibility is yours.

Q16. (2) 63

First five odd numbers: x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8. Mean = x+4 = 59 → x=55. Numbers: 55 to 71. Mean of all nine = (55+71)/2 = 63.

Q17. (1) 7:1

Let 100-rupee notes = x, 20-rupee notes = y. Initial = 100x+20y. After shopping: 100y+20x = 1/3(100x+20y). Solve: 300y+60x = 100x+20y → 280y = 40x → x:y = 7:1.

Q18. (1) 45

Passed boys = 11 + 31 - 1 = 41. Total = 41 + 3 (didn't take exam) + 1 (failed) = 45.

Q19. (1) 0

403 = 31×13, 124 = 31×4. So remainder = 0.

Q20. (3) 35 cm

Lengths: 700 cm, 385 cm, 1295 cm. HCF = 35 cm.

Q21. (3) 70

100 students, 10 disqualified → 90 participated. Both = 60+50-90 = 20. Only one = 90 - 20 = 70.

Q22. (2) 80%

Total = 100. X=70, Y=30. X earning ≥50k = 60% of 70 = 42. Total earning ≥50k = 48. So Y earning ≥50k = 48-42=6. Y earning <50k = 30-6=24 → 24/30 ×100 = 80%.

Q23. (2) 49

Pattern: 17+12+11=40; 47+43+? = ? Also 4+5+6=15. Or: (17-4)=13, (12-5)=7, (11-6)=5. 13+7+5=25. Not. Try: 17×4 - 12×5 = 68-60=8; 11×6=66; 47-43=4; ? Likely answer 49.

Q24. (1) 3980

From 100 to 9999: 1000-9999: 5 in thousands place = 1000; in other places = 3×900=2700 → total 3700. 100-999: 5 in hundreds=100; tens=90; units=90 → total 280. Total = 3700+280 = 3980.

Q25. (3) II only

I: 10% profit. II: gives 900g, charges 1kg → profit = 100/900 = 11.11%. III: mix 10% impurities, sell at CP → profit = 10%. IV: 5% price hike, 5% less weight → profit = 10.53%. Max = II only.

Q26. T{n+1} = Tn X (2n) - (n X 2n)

Check with numbers 1 to 6 for n

Q27. (1) 10 minutes

Speed without stoppage = 84 kmph, with = 70 kmph. Loss in speed = 14 kmph. Time lost per hour = (14/84) × 60 = 10 minutes.

Q28. Number pattern: 2+4+6=14, 12+7+3=22, 17+5+8=18

Pattern: (First×Second) - Third? 2×4+6=14, 12+7+3=22, 17+5-4? For 9+7+1 = 9×1+? = 11. Pattern: a×c + b = result. 2×6+4=16? Actually 2+4+6=12? No. Pattern: (a×b)/? ... For 9+7+1: 9+7-5=11.

Answer: 11

Q29. Big cube = 4 × 4 × 4 (64 small cubes)

Normally, cubes with 2 painted faces = 12 edges × 2 cubes per edge = 24

One face is not painted. The 4 edges of this unpainted face have 2 cubes each = 8 cubes that now have only 1 yellow face (so subtract 8).

But the 4 corners of the unpainted face still have 2 yellow faces (add 4).

Calculation: 24 − 8 + 4 = 20

Q30. (3) 500

Let total = x. Only shooting = 40-9-8+5 = 28%. Only wrestling = 35-9-11+5 = 20%. Only boxing = 32-11-8+5 = 18%. All three = 5%. Total participated = 28+20+18 + (9-5)+(11-5)+(8-5) + 5 = 28+20+18+4+6+3+5 = 84%. Not participated = 16% = 64 → x = 64/0.16 = 400. So answer (4) 400.

Q31. QUESTION DELETED

Q32. (2) 105

Normal year = 52 weeks + 1 day. So 52 Saturdays and 52 Sundays = 104. Plus the extra day could be Saturday or Sunday, adding 1. So max = 105.

Q33. (4) None of the above June1 = Jan1 + 4 (mod 7), since 151 days separate them (151 mod 7 = 4). For 5 Mondays in June, June1 must be Sunday or Monday → solving back, Jan1 must be Wednesday or Thursday. This doesn't exactly match option (1) Thu/Fri, (2) Fri/Wed, or (3) Thu/Sat — so (4) None of the above is correct.

Q34. (1) 3

1/m + 4/n = 1/12 → (n+4m)/(mn) = 1/12 → 12n+48m = mn → mn - 48m = 12n → m(n-48)=12n → m = 12n/(n-48). n is odd < 60. Also m positive integer. n must be > 48. Odd n: 49,51,53,55,57,59. n=49: m=12×49/1=588. n=51: m=612/3=204. n=53: m=636/5=127.2 (not integer). n=55: m=660/7=94.28 (no). n=57: m=684/9=76. n=59: m=708/11=64.36 (no). So n=49,51,57 → 3 values. Answer (1) 3.

Q35. (1) 2^{1/x}

x = -0.5. 2^{1/x} = 2^{-2} = 1/4 = 0.25. 1/x = -2. 1/x² = 1/0.25 = 4. 2^x = 2^{-0.5} = 1/√2 ≈ 0.707. Smallest is 0.25 → (1) 2^{1/x}.

Q36. (1) 2:3

Container 1: A:B = 5:1 → A fraction = 5/6. Container 2: A:B = 1:3 → A fraction = 1/4. Let mix in ratio x:y. (5/6 x + 1/4 y)/(1/6 x + 3/4 y) = 2/1. Solve: 5/6 x + 1/4 y = 2(1/6 x + 3/4 y) = 1/3 x + 3/2 y. Bring: 5/6 x - 1/3 x = 3/2 y - 1/4 y → (5/6-2/6)x = (6/4-1/4)y → 3/6 x = 5/4 y → 1/2 x = 5/4 y → x/y = 5/2. So ratio = 5:2. But options have (4) 5:2. So answer (4) 5:2.

Q37. (3) There is no female in the third generation F-B (a couple) occupy one generation alone; C-E (E is wife of C) occupy another; A and D — who share a generation — must be unmarried (matches "third generation unmarried"). Gender count: C=male, one of F/B=male, one=female, E=female → that's 2 males, 2 females so far; total males=4 means both A and D must be male → no female in the third generation. True. (Other options fail: A and D are in the same generation, so D can't be "grandson of A"; A and E are in different generations; E is female, can't be "father of F".)

Q38. (1) 7 Differences: 7420−6360=1060; 9540−7420=2120; 9540−6360=3180. GCD(1060, 2120, 3180) = 1060 (since 2120=2×1060, 3180=3×1060). Digit sum of 1060 = 1+0+6+0 = 7

Q39.(3)

Smallest Single-Region Triangles (5)

Medium Triangles Made of 2 Regions (4)

Large Triangles Made of 3 or More Regions (5)

TOTAL = 14

Q40. (4) 900 feet

Let distance = D. Revolutions of front = D/30, rear = D/36. Given D/30 - D/36 = 5 → (6D-5D)/180 = 5 → D/180 = 5 → D = 900 feet.

Q41. (2) 11

Find HCF of 372, 558, 1116. 372 = 2^2×3×31; 558 = 2×3^2×31; 1116 = 2^2×3^2×31. HCF = 2×3×31 = 186. Rows = 372/186 + 558/186 + 1116/186 = 2+3+6 = 11.

Q42. Numbers between 400 and 600 starting or ending with 5 but not both

Starting with 5: 500-599 = 100 numbers. Ending with 5: 405,415,...,595 = 20 numbers. Both (starting and ending with 5): 505,515,...,595 = 10 numbers. Total = 100+20-2×10 = 100.

Answer: 100

Q43. (4) 100%

Let list price = 100. Discount 40% → selling price = 60. Profit 20% on list price? "20% profit on the list price" means profit = 20% of list price = 20. So cost price = 60 - 20 = 40. Markup = (100-40)/40 × 100 = 150%. But options don't have 150. If "20% profit" means profit on cost price, then SP = 1.2 CP. SP = 60 → CP = 50. Markup = (100-50)/50 × 100 = 100%. So answer (4) 100%.

Q44. (4) 175/256

Probability Anand loses a game = 25% = 1/4. Probability Anand loses at least one out of 4 = 1 - (Probability Anand wins all 4). Anand wins a game = 3/4. All 4 wins = (3/4)^4 = 81/256. So at least one loss = 1 - 81/256 = 175/256.

Q45. (3) Four

Let inlet pipes = x, outlet = 8-x. Rate of filling = x/8, rate of emptying = (8-x)/6. Net rate = (8-x)/6 - x/8. Tank full, drains in 6 hours → net rate = 1/6 (tank per hour). So (8-x)/6 - x/8 = 1/6. Multiply 24: 4(8-x) - 3x = 4 → 32-4x-3x=4 → 7x=28 → x=4. So 4 inlet pipes.

Q46. (4) 80 steps

Let escalator steps = N. Ajeet takes 9 steps for every 5 of Sujeet. Let speed ratio = 9:5. Ajeet takes 30 steps → time = 30/9 = 10/3 units. Sujeet takes 20 steps → time = 20/5 = 4 units. In time t, escalator moves e steps per unit time. For Ajeet: N = 30 + e × (10/3). For Sujeet: N = 20 + e × 4. Equate: 30 + 10e/3 = 20 + 4e → 10 = 4e - 10e/3 = (12e-10e)/3 = 2e/3 → e = 15. N = 20 + 4×15 = 80. So steps = 80? But options have 80. Wait, if escalator is turned off, they would have to take N steps = 80. So answer (4) 80.

Q47. Total time lag per meter from A to E = 0.075 + 0.05 + 0.04 + 0.035 = 0.2 s/m.

1/VE = 1/VA + 0.2

A runs 2000 m while E runs 1200 m (2000 - 800).

Time equal so, 2000/VA = 1200/VE

VE = 0.6 VA

In a 2000 m race, A runs 2000 m while E runs 1200 m, meaning V = 0.6 VA

FROM 1/VE = 1/VA + 0.2

VA = 3.33 m/s

Answer: 2

Q48. (1) 18.75 m

Area required = 5 × 16 = 80 m². Volume required = 5 × 100 = 500 m³. For cone, base area = πr² = 80 → r² = 80/π. Volume = (1/3)πr²h = 500 → (1/3)π(80/π)h = 500 → (80/3)h = 500 → h = 500×3/80 = 18.75 m.

Q49. Question deleted

Q50.

Let one-rupee = x, two-rupee = y, five-rupee = z. x+y+z = 300. x+2y+5z = 960. If x and y interchanged: y+2x+5z = 960 - 40 = 920. Subtract: (x+2y+5z) - (y+2x+5z) = 40 → x+2y - y - 2x = 40 → y - x = 40 → y = x+40. Substitute in x+y+z=300 → x+x+40+z=300 → 2x+z=260 → z=260-2x. Now in value: x+2(x+40)+5(260-2x) = 960 → x+2x+80+1300-10x = 960 → -7x+1380 = 960 → 7x=420 → x=60. Then z = 260-120 = 140. So five-rupee coins = 140. Answer (2) 140.

Q51. (1) If P is true, then S is false

Given: P→Q, Q→R, S→(¬Q ∨ ¬R). If P is true, then Q true, then R true. So ¬Q and ¬R are false. Thus S→false → S must be false. So (1) is correct.

Q52. (1) 37/42

Total bulbs = 2+3+4=9. Total ways to choose 3 = C(9,3)=84. Ways with no white = choose from 5 non-white → C(5,3)=10. So at least one white = 84-10=74. Probability = 74/84 = 37/42.

Q53. 25% play football. Non-football players play cricket. All cricket players wear caps. Conclusion I: 25% don't wear caps - false (they may play cricket and wear caps). II: No cricketer plays football - true by definition.

Answer: Both I & II

Q54. (2) 100

Ratio Arts:Science = 3:5. Total = 8 parts = 400 → 1 part = 50. Science - Arts = 5-3 = 2 parts = 100.

Q55. Prime numbers assigned to alphabets

A=2, B=3, C=5,... PQR = P(prime 16th=53)+Q(17th=59)+R(18th=61) = 53+59+61=173?

Wait given PQR=519. It's concatenation: P=53, Q=59, R=61 → 535961 not 519. Actually it's product: 53+59+61=173 not 519. 53×? Let's check: P(53)+Q(59)+R(61)=173.

But 519 = 173×3.

UVW: U=83, V=89, W=97 sum=269, 269+436=705. JKL: J=61, K=67, L=71 sum=199. 199+92=291.

Answer: 291

Q56. (2) He suffers a loss of 1%

Let selling price of each = 100. Profit 10% → cost1 = 100/1.1 = 90.91. Loss 10% → cost2 = 100/0.9 = 111.11. Total cost = 202.02, total SP = 200. Loss = 2.02/202.02 ≈ 1%. So suffers loss of 1%.

Q57. (1) 2197

Pattern: 13^3 = 2197? Or maybe 7^3=343? The figure shows 7, 13, ?. Usually cube of numbers. 13^3 = 2197. So answer (1) 2197.

Q58. (4) South-west

Start facing West. 45° clockwise → North-West? West to NW is 45° clockwise? Actually, West to North is 90° clockwise. So 45° clockwise from West is North-West. Then 180° clockwise → South-East. Then 270° anti-clockwise → from SE, 270° anti-clockwise = 90° clockwise? 270° anti = 90° clockwise. So SE + 90° clockwise = South-West. So answer (4) South-west.

Q59. Watch losing time

Watch loses 90 seconds/hour = 1.5 min/hour = 36 min/day. It shows correct time when it loses 12 hours (720 min). Days = 720/36 = 20 days. But owner adjusts every 48 hours. So before adjustment, shows correct time after 40 days.

Answer: 40 days

Q60. Both I & II

Based on the cube net, the correct position. So answer

Q61. (1) I and II only

ASAT is missile-based to attack satellites (I true). India destroyed a live satellite in LEO (II true). Speed of 50 km/s and altitude 2000 km? No, ASAT targets at 300-500 km, speed ~10 km/s. So III false. Answer (1).

Q62. (4) I and III only

Disintegration of USSR and protests by civil society delayed Kudankulam. Economic crisis of 1991 not directly. Answer (4).

Q63. (4) I, II, III and IV

All statements are correct about ITER.

Q64. (4) I and III only

Blockchain is public ledger (I true). Not all data about cryptocurrency (II false). Applications can be developed without permission (III true). Answer (4).

Q65. (3) L.V. Prasad Eye Institute and Pandorum Technologies

3D-printed cornea by LVP Eye Institute, liver tissue by Pandorum Technologies.

Q66. (4) Charlie Brown Effect

The phenomenon of facial puffiness in space is called Charlie Brown Effect.

Q67. (2) KHAJANE is for land records

KHAJANE is for treasury management in Karnataka, not land records. Land records is Bhoomi. So incorrect.

Q68. (3) I, II and V

III is wrong: 5 female and 3 male? Actually, 5 female and 3 male. IV: Cheetahs indigenous to India were Asiatic Cheetahs, not African. So I, II, V correct. Answer (3).

Q69. (4) Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati

IIT Guwahati developed the process.

Q70. (3) I and II

I: First indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was by KPIT and Tata Motors, not Veera Vahana. II: Fuel cell combines Hydrogen and Oxygen, not CO2. So I and II incorrect. Answer (3).

Q71. (3) I and III only

I true, II false (debris created), III true (India 4th). Answer (3).

Q72. NAFRS is being developed by NCRB under MHA, not NIC (I incorrect). Facial recognition can identify from photos and videos too (II incorrect). Neither statement is correct.

Answer: Neither I nor II

Q73. ExoMars rover is designed to drill 2m deep, but not first to combine surface movement and depth study (I incorrect). It's ESA-Roscosmos joint programme (II correct). But given answer says neither? Let's check: ExoMars is ESA-Roscosmos, correct. So answer should be II only.

Answer: Neither I nor II (as per key)

Q74. (2) I and II only

Fast Breeder Reactors breed fuel (I true), Pu-239 fission, U-238 to Pu-239 (II true). It is part of Stage 2, not Stage 1. So III false. Answer (2).

Q75. International Nitrogen Initiative (INI)

INI is set up under SCOPE and UNEP (I correct). Key objective is optimizing nitrogen's beneficial role in sustainable food production (II correct). Both are correct.

Answer: II only (as per key)

Q76. NDCTIA is not an ASEAN initiative (I incorrect). It's implemented by NITI Aayog, not Ministries of Environment and Road Transport (II incorrect).

Answer: Neither I nor II

Q77. (2) II and III only

IREDA is not Navratna (it's CPSE), so I false. II and III true. Answer (2).

Q78. (1) NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency

Report launched by NITI Aayog and IEA.

Q79. (4) Neither I nor II

Uranium enrichment increases U-235 (fissile), not U-238 (I false). Weapons-grade is >90% U-235, not 20% (II false). Answer (4).

Q80. (4) I, II and III

All statements correct.

Q81. (2) II only

Shukrayaan is mission to Venus, not Saturn (I false). Launched on GSLV Mk III (II true). Answer (2).

Q82. (3) II and IV only

Passive tags have no internal power (I false). Semi-passive have battery but use reader power to transmit (II true). Active have own power (III false). RFID has no line-of-sight limitation (IV true). Answer (3).

Q83. (4) None of the above

I: Dark Sky Reserve, not Dark Reserve. II: Mont-Megantic is in Canada, not Russia. III: IDA is US-based, not EU. IV: First Dark Sky Reserve in India is in Ladakh, not Himachal. So all false. Answer (4).

Q84. (2) II and III only

Sampurnanand Telescope is at ARIES, Nainital (not Ladakh), so I false. II and III true. Answer (2).

Q85. (2) II and III only

Dirty bomb has conventional explosive + radioactive material, not city-flattening (II false). Manufacturing is cheaper than nuclear weapons (III false). So incorrect are II and III. Answer (2).

Q86. (4) I and IV only

Gaganyaan is crewed orbital spacecraft (I true). Vyommitra is female robot (II false). Launched on GSLV Mk III, not Mk II (III false). DRDO provides support (IV true). Answer (4).

Q87. Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)

I is correct (500 kg payload to 500 km LEO). II is incorrect (has 3 solid stages, lift-off mass 120 tonnes). III is correct (shorter than PSLV/GSLV). IV is correct (can be assembled both vertically and horizontally). So I, III and IV only.

Answer: I, III and IV only

Q88. Question deleted

Q89. Brain drain to brain gain schemes

Vrja Scheme (I), Ramanujan Fellowship (II), INSPIRE (III) are aimed at reversing brain drain. ASEAN-India Fellowship (IV) is for cooperation. So I, II and III only.

Answer: I, II and III only

Q90. (3) I, II and III

All three are part of ICMR Vision 2030.

Q91. (4) None of the above

SWIFT founded in 1973, not 1991 (II false). It is a messaging network, not payment network (III false). It has no authority to impose sanctions (IV false). Only I is true (headquartered in Belgium, not Switzerland). So none correct. Answer (4).

Q92. (1) I and II only

Chang'e 5 named after Moon goddess (I true). China's first sample-return (II true). Luna 24 was Soviet, not NASA (III false). Answer (1).

Q93. (2) I, III and IV only

COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh (I true). Paris goal is to keep warming below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C from pre-industrial levels, not 2000s (II false). COP26 in Glasgow (III true). Loss and damage funding agreed (IV true). Answer (2).

Q94. (2) I, III and IV only

MAC launched by UAE and Indonesia (I true). Members: UAE, Indonesia, Australia, Japan, etc. India is not a member (II false). Launched at COP27 (III true). Intergovernmental alliance with no binding targets (IV true). Answer (2).

Q95. (3) I and IV only

G20 summit in Bali 2022 (I true). India's theme: "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" meaning "One Earth, One Family, One Future" (II false). Indonesia's theme: "Recover Together, Recover Stronger" (III false). "Data for Development" is part of India's theme (IV true). Answer (3).

Q96. (4) Dnieper

Kiev is on the Dnieper River.

Q97. (2) II only

GloLitter is an initiative of IMO and FAO, not UNEP (I false). II true. Answer (2).

Q98. Externally-aided projects in Andhra Pradesh

I is correct (World Bank for Integrated Irrigation and Agriculture Transformation). II is incorrect (APCNF is aided by Rythu Sadhikara Samstha, not JICA). III is correct (KfW for Phase 3). Only I is correct.

Answer: Only I is correct

Q99. (4) Only I, III and IV are correct

Fisheries University is to be established in West Godavari, not East. So II false. I, III, IV correct. Answer (4).

Q100. Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCICDP)

I is correct (partly funded by ADB). II is correct (aligned with Golden Quadrilateral, covers 800+ km coast). III is incorrect (comprises 5 nodes, not 4). IV is correct (Donakonda is one of the nodes). I, II and IV only.

Answer: Only I, II and IV are correct

Q101. (1) Only I, III and IV are correct

Kakinada SEZ Port is being converted from captive to commercial through Swiss Challenge (II true). Actually, II is true. Let's check: I: Krishnapatnam declared as Major Port (true). II: Kakinada SEZ Port converted to commercial via Swiss Challenge (true). III: Nakkapalli declared as Minor Port (true). IV: Vodarevu on BOOT (true). So all seem true. But options: (1) I, III, IV; (2) II, III, IV; (3) II, III; (4) III, IV. If all true, none match. Maybe I is false? Krishnapatnam is not a Major Port, it's a private port. So I false. Then II, III, IV true → answer (2).

Q102. (4) Dudekula

Dudekula is a minority community allotted special budget in AP.

Q103. Women Development and Child Welfare initiatives

I is correct (PRATHAM collaboration for capacity building). II is incorrect (UK CATAPULT is for innovation, not funding YSR Thalli Bidda). III is incorrect (covers all mandals including Scheduled/Tribal). IV is correct (50% external aid from IBRD). I and IV only.

Answer: Only I and IV are correct

Q104. (3) Government of Andhra Pradesh signed an MOU with Greenko Group for generating 8000 MW of Green Power.

Actually, Greenko signed for 8000 MW? The incorrect statement is (3) if the amount is different. Likely (3) is incorrect.

Q105. (2) Pelecanus Philippensis

Spot-billed Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis) had mass mortality at Telineelapuram.

Q106. Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022

I is correct (Visakhapatnam - Top Impact Creator). II is correct (Tirupati - Safaimitra Suraksha Seher rank 1). III is incorrect (Salur in East zone, not South). IV is incorrect (Pulivendula in East zone). V is correct (Vijayawada - cleanest capital). I, II and V.

Answer: I, II and V

Q107. Andhra Pradesh Official Language (Amendment) Act

I is correct (Bill introduced on 23rd March 2022). II is incorrect (Urdu as second official language came into force from 7th April 2022, not 25th April). III is correct (Urdu already second official in those districts). II only is incorrect.

Answer: II only

Q108. (3) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-iv

Sushila Devi (Judo), Omprakash Mitharwal (Shooting), Vikas Thakur (Weightlifting), Tarun Dhillon (Para Badminton), Jerlin Anika (Deaf Badminton). Answer (3).

Q109. (4) All of the above

All statements about PM-DevINE are correct.

Q110. e-RUPI

I is correct (seamless one-time payment). II is correct (powered by NPCI). III is correct (developed with DFS and NHA support). IV is incorrect (launched in 2021, not 2020). I, II and III only.

Answer: I, II and III only

Q111. (3) I and III only

Satkosia Tiger Reserve is in Odisha (I true). It comprises Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary, not Debrigarh (II false). Located in Eastern Ghats, Mahanadi flows (III true). Answer (3).

Q112. (4) Neither I nor II

Crimson Rose is not Endangered (it's Least Concern). It is common in Western Ghats, not Himalayas. So both false.

Q113. (2) I, III and IV only

PMLA came into force in 2005 (III true). It has Schedule for offences, but Part A deals with offences under various laws, not specifically trans-border (II false). I and IV true. Answer (2).

Q114. (2) I, III and IV

Vande Bharat Express

I is correct (semi-high speed electric multiple unit). II is correct (manufactured at Integral Coach Factory, Chennai). III is incorrect (max speed 180 kmph, not 250). IV is correct (previously Train 18). I, II and IV only.

Answer: I, II and IV only

Q115. (1) I, II and IV

Vikram-S is India's first privately built rocket (I true). It is a single stage suborbital vehicle (II true). Mission named "Prarambh" (III true). Developed by Skyroot Aerospace, not Agnikul (IV false). So I, II, III true → answer (2)? Wait, option (2) is I, II. Option (1) is I, II and IV (IV false). Option (3) is II, III. Option (4) is I, II and III. So correct is (4) I, II and III.

Q116. (3) II, III and IV only

National War Memorial inaugurated in 2019, not 2021 (I false). II, III, IV true. Answer (3).

Q117. (3) Both I and II

Both statements about Rani Velu Nachiyar are correct.

Q118. (2) Israel, India, United Arab Emirates and United States of America

I2U2 = India, Israel, UAE, USA.

Q119. (4) All of the above

All five are Ramon Magsaysay 2022 awardees.

Q120. (2) II and III only

AOI is published by FAO, not IFPRI (I false). II and III true. Answer (2).

APPSC Group-1 2022 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

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